Consider the following statement.
'If \(f^{\prime \prime}(0)=0\), then the graph of \(f\) necessarily has a point of inflection at \(x=0\).'
A counter-example that disproves this statement is when
- \(f(x)=\sin ^{-1}(x)\)
- \(f(x)=\dfrac{2 x}{x^2-1}\)
- \(f(x)=x^{\tfrac{1}{3}}\)
- \(f(x)=x^4-x\)