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BIOLOGY, M5 EQ-Bank 24

A non-infectious disease was observed in a mother and her four sons who live with her. She has no daughters. The father of these children does not have the disease and does not live with them. The woman's parents and her two sisters who live overseas do not have the disease.

A geneticist suspects that the disease is inherited.

  1. Draw the family pedigree for this disease.   (3 marks)
     

     
  2. From the evidence, what indicates that the disease could be the result of a recessive allele and not be sex-linked?   (2 marks)

Show Answers Only

a.   
         
 

b.   Evidence disease is recessive and not sex-linked:

→ Generation 1 parents do not have the disease but it is present in their daughter, meaning it must be recessive.

→ If the disease was sex-linked, the same daughter who has the disease must have a father with the disease, however this is not the case.

Show Worked Solution

a.   
         
 

b.   Evidence disease is recessive and not sex-linked:

→ Generation 1 parents do not have the disease but it is present in their daughter, meaning it must be recessive.

→ If the disease was sex-linked, the same daughter who has the disease must have a father with the disease, however this is not the case.

BIOLOGY, M5 EQ-Bank 21

There are some significant differences in the form that DNA has in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.

In the space provided draw a labelled diagram demonstrating the difference in the form of DNA between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.   (3 marks)
 

Show Answers Only

Show Worked Solution

Points to note on images:

→ Prokaryotic DNA is in the form of a loop

→ Eukaryotic DNA has two loose ends and is tightly coiled in the body

BIOLOGY, M5 EQ-Bank 23

Students conducted preliminary experiments to analyse the DNA base composition of five different individuals.

The table shows the experimental data collected.
 

  1. On the grid provided, plot the % Guanine against % Adenine of the individuals analysed and draw a suitable line of best fit.   (3 marks)
     
     

  2. Identify the relationship shown by the data.   (1 mark)

  3. Explain the relationship shown by the data.   (3 marks)

Show Answers Only

a.   
       

b.  Relationship: As the % of Adenine increases, the % of Guanine decreases.

c.   Adenine/Guanine relationship

→ Because Adenine pairs with Thymine and Cytosine pairs with Guanine occurring to DNA base pairing rules, each should directly correlate to each other and account for the same % within the DNA composition of any species.

→ There are the only 4 components that make up all DNA composition. This also means that when comparing % of bases that do not pair, such as Adenine and Guanine, they must combine to form 50% of all DNA. This is evident when looking at individuals A and B, as well as C, D and E which are only off by 1-2%, most likely due to human error.

→ This always explains the relationship where an increase in Adenine (and Thymine) % will result in a decrease in Guanine (and Cytosine) % as the A and T pairs now occupy more space in the genome.

Show Worked Solution

a.   
       

b.  Relationship: As the % of Adenine increases, the % of Guanine decreases.

c.   Adenine/Guanine relationship

→ Because Adenine pairs with Thymine and Cytosine pairs with Guanine occurring to DNA base pairing rules, each should directly correlate to each other and account for the same % within the DNA composition of any species.

→ There are the only 4 components that make up all DNA composition. This also means that when comparing % of bases that do not pair, such as Adenine and Guanine, they must combine to form 50% of all DNA. This is evident when looking at individuals A and B, as well as C, D and E which are only off by 1-2%, most likely due to human error.

→ This always explains the relationship where an increase in Adenine (and Thymine) % will result in a decrease in Guanine (and Cytosine) % as the A and T pairs now occupy more space in the genome.

BIOLOGY, M5 EQ-Bank 22

  1. The following data shows the average amount of Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG) produced by pregnant women.
      

    Use the information provided to graph the levels of hCG in a normal pregnancy.   (3 marks)
     
     

  2. Describe the role and changes in levels of a hormone in pregnancy.   (3 marks)

Show Answers Only

a.   

b.   The role and changes in levels of hormones in pregnancy.

→ Progesterone is a sex hormone which is initially secreted by the corpus leuteum after ovulation to thicken the endometrium for implantation.

→ Once the placenta has developed, it then increases the progesterone levels which maintain the pregnancy.

→ Progesterone levels eventually drop in the last stage of pregnancy to facilitate delivery.
  

Answers could also include information about other hormones including

→ Oestrogen

→ hCG

Show Worked Solution

a.   

b.   The role and changes in levels of hormones in pregnancy.

→ Progesterone is a sex hormone which is initially secreted by the corpus leuteum after ovulation to thicken the endometrium for implantation.

→ Once the placenta has developed, it then increases the progesterone levels which maintain the pregnancy.

→ Progesterone levels eventually drop in the last stage of pregnancy to facilitate delivery.
  

Answers could also include information about other hormones including

→ Oestrogen

→ hCG

BIOLOGY, M5 EQ-Bank 2 MC

A student completed a genetics exercise by preparing a Punnett square. `T` represents a dominant allele and `t` represents a recessive allele.
 

What were the likely genotypes of these parents?

  1. Both parents were homozygous.
  2. Both parents were heterozygous.
  3. Parent 1 was homozygous, Parent 2 was heterozygous.
  4. Parent 1 was heterozygous, Parent 2 was homozygous.
Show Answers Only

`B`

Show Worked Solution

→ Genotype ratio `1:2:1` is a typical Mendelian ratio of a cross between 2 heterozygous parents.

`=>B`

BIOLOGY, M5 EQ-Bank 4 MC

A student constructed a model of meiosis as shown. However, there is an error in the model.
 

Which aspect of this model does NOT fit with observations of meiosis?

  1. Separation of chromatids has not been shown in the model.
  2. The chromosomes have not independently assorted in stage 2 .
  3. The chromosomes in stage 4 should have duplicated before stage 5 .
  4. The chromosomes have undergone crossing over before sister chromosome alignment in stage 3 .
Show Answers Only

`D`

Show Worked Solution

→ Stage 4 and 5 have to switch to fix the error. All other aspects are correct.

`=>D`

PHYSICS, M8 EQ-Bank 22

Einstein's equation `E = mc^(2)`  is one of the most important equations in the history of physics.

Justify this statement.   (7 marks)

Show Answers Only

`E=mc^(2)` at its most basic level, expresses the concept that mass and energy are interchangeable.

Its importance is due to its critical role in explaining and analysing a broad range of ideas, processes and phenomena. These include:

→  The energy sourced from the processes of nuclear fission and fusion, including the energy associated with radioactive decay.

→ The relationship between the binding energy of atoms and their mass defect.

→ Mass dilation of objects approaching the speed of light.

→ The fundamental principles and technology upon which nuclear bombs and nuclear reactors operate.

→ Processes which source energy in stars through the conversion of mass into energy.

→ Processes which allow for particle accelerators to operate, allowing us to investigate into the fundamental structure and properties of matter.

Other equations, such as Newton’s Universal Law of Gravity, do not have the same myriad of applications in fields that make up our current understanding of physics.

It is therefore justified in being called one of the most important equations in the history of physics

Show Worked Solution

`E=mc^(2)` at its most basic level, expresses the concept that mass and energy are interchangeable.

Its importance is due to its critical role in explaining and analysing a broad range of ideas, processes and phenomena. These include:

→  The energy sourced from the processes of nuclear fission and fusion, including the energy associated with radioactive decay.

→ The relationship between the binding energy of atoms and their mass defect.

→ Mass dilation of objects approaching the speed of light.

→ The fundamental principles and technology upon which nuclear bombs and nuclear reactors operate.

→ Processes which source energy in stars through the conversion of mass into energy.

→ Processes which allow for particle accelerators to operate, allowing us to investigate into the fundamental structure and properties of matter.

Other equations, such as Newton’s Universal Law of Gravity, do not have the same myriad of applications in fields that make up our current understanding of physics.

It is therefore justified in being called one of the most important equations in the history of physics

PHYSICS, M8 EQ-Bank 3 MC

A 5-gram sample of radioactive strontium-90 decayed over time. The graph shows the mass of strontium-90 remaining from the initial sample as a function of time.
 

What is the approximate value of the decay constant, in `\text{year}^(-1)`, for strontium-90?

  1. 0.006
  2. 0.011
  3. 0.014
  4. 0.025
Show Answers Only

`D`

Show Worked Solution

→ From the graph, the half life (mass = 2.5 g) is approximately 29 years.

`lambda` `=(ln2)/(t_((1)/(2)))`  
  `=(ln2)/(29)`  
  `=0.0239\ text{year}^(-1)`  

 
`=>D`

PHYSICS, M8 EQ-Bank 4 MC

Which of the following is true in relation to Millikan's oil drop experiment?
 

Show Answers Only

`D`

Show Worked Solution

→ Millikan’s experiment involved levitating oil drops in an electric field in order to measure the charge on an electron.

`=>D`

PHYSICS, M8 EQ-Bank 2 MC

After DC voltage was applied to an apparatus containing hydrogen gas, the hydrogen separated into streams of oppositely charged particles.

What could be concluded from this observation?

  1. Hydrogen gas conducts electricity.
  2. Hydrogen is the simplest element.
  3. Hydrogen atoms have components.
  4. Hydrogen atoms have a neutral charge.
Show Answers Only

`C`

Show Worked Solution

→ The separation shows that hydrogen atoms contain both positive (protons) and negative (electrons) components.

`=>C`

PHYSICS, M8 EQ-Bank 1 MC

A Hertzsprung-Russell diagram is shown.
 

In which region would a star have the same surface temperature as a star on the main sequence?

  1. `P`
  2. `Q`
  3. `R`
  4. `S`
Show Answers Only

`D`

Show Worked Solution

→ Using the `x`-axis of the Hertzsprung-Russel diagram, `S` is the only region in which stars have the same surface temperature as a star on the main sequence.

`=>D`

PHYSICS, M5 EQ-Bank 4 MC

A torque is applied to a nut, using a wrench.
 

Which change will increase the magnitude of applied torque?

  1. Increasing the angle between the applied force and the wrench
  2. Decreasing the angle between the applied force and the wrench
  3. Increasing the distance between the nut and the point of application of the force
  4. Decreasing the distance between the nut and the point of application of the force
Show Answers Only

`C`

Show Worked Solution

→ `tau = rF sin theta`

→ Increasing the distance (`r`) between the point of application of the force and the nut will increase applied torque.

`=>C`

Proof, EXT2 P2 EQ-Bank 11

A sequence is given by the recursive formula

`a_1=10, \ a_(n+1)=3a_n+4`  for  `n>=1`

Using mathematical induction to show the formula for the general term of the sequence is

`a_n=4(3^n)-2`   (3 marks)

Show Answers Only

`text{Proof (See Worked Solution)}`

Show Worked Solution

`text{Prove true for}\ \ n=1:`

`text{LHS}\ =a_1=10`

`text{RHS}\ =4(3^1)-2=10=\ text{LHS}`

`:.\ text{True for}\ \ n=1`
 

`text{Assume true for}\ \ n=k:`

`a_k=4(3^k)-2\ \ text{… (1)}`
 

`text{Prove true for}\ \ n=k+1:`

`text{i.e.}\ a_(k+1)=4(3^(k+1))-2`

`a_(k+1)` `=3a_k+4`  
  `=3[4(3^k)-2]+4`  
  `=4*3^k*3-6+4`  
  `=4(3^(k+1))-2`  
  `=\ text{RHS}`  

 
`:.\ text{True for}\ \ n=k+1`

`:.\ text{Since true for} \ n=1,\ text{by PMI, true for integers} \ n>=1.`

Calculus, EXT1 C3 EQ-Bank 12

Solve  `dy/dx=2x^2-3x`  given that when  `x=3`, `y=-1`.   (2 marks)

Show Answers Only
  1. `y=2/3x^3-3/2x^2-11/2`
Show Worked Solution
`dy/dx` `=2x^2-3x`  
`1\ dy` `=2x^2-3x\ dx`  
`int1\ dy` `=int2x^2-3x\ dx`  
`y` `=2/3x^3-3/2x^2+c`  

 
`text{When}\ \ x=3,\ y=-1:`

`-1` `=2/3 3^3-3/2 3^2+c`  
`c` `=-11/2`  

 
`:.y=2/3x^3-3/2x^2-11/2`

Calculus, EXT1 C3 EQ-Bank 8

A researcher estimates the number of brumbies in a National Park after `t` years can be modelled by the equation

`B(t)=(18\ 000)/(1+4e^(-t))`

  1. Sketch the function `B(t)` over the first four years of the research.   (2 marks)

  2. Calculate when the brumby population should reach 13 000, giving your answer to 2 decimal places.   (1 mark)

  3. Show that  `B^(′)(t)=(72\ 000e^t)/(e^t+4)^2`   (2 marks)

  4. What is the maximum growth rate of the brumby population?   (3 marks)

Show Answers Only
  1.  
     
  2. `2.34\ text{years}`
  3. `text{Proof (See Worked Solutions}`
  4. `4500\ text{brumbies per year}`
Show Worked Solution

i.   

ii.   `text {Find}\ t\ text{when}\ \ B(t)=13\ 000`

`13\ 000` `=(18\ 000)/(1+4e^(-t))`  
`13\ 000(1+4e^(-t))` `=18\ 000`  
`1+4e^(-t)` `=18/13`  
`4e^(-t)` `=5/13`  
`e^(-t)` `=5/52`  
`-t` `=ln(5/52)`  
`t` `=2.34\ text{years (2 d.p.)}`  

 

 iii.   `text{Show}\ \ B^(′)(t)=(72\ 000e^t)/(e^t+4)^2`

`B(t)=18\ 000(1+4e^(-t))^(-1)`

`B^(′)(t)` `=-1*-1*4e^(-t)*18\ 000(1+4e^(-t))^-2`  
  `=(72\ 000)/(e^t(1+4e^(-t))^2)`  
  `=(72\ 000)/(e^t(1+4/e^t)^2)`  
  `=(72\ 000)/(e^t((e^t+4)/e^t)^2)`  
  `=(72\ 000)/(e^t/(e^t)^2*(e^t+4)^2)`  
  `=(72\ 000e^t)/(e^t+4)^2\ \ text{… as required}`  

 

iv.  `B^(′)(t)=72\ 000e^t(e^t+4)^(-2)`

`text{Using product rule:}`

`B^(′′)(t)` `=72\ 000e^t(e^t+4)^(-2)+(-2e^t)(e^t+4)^(-3)72\ 000e^t`  
  `=72\ 000e^t(1/(e^t+4)^2-(2e^t)/(e^t+4)^3)`  
  `=72\ 000e^t((e^t+4-2e^t)/(e^t+4)^3)`  
  `=72\ 000e^t((4-e^t)/(e^t+4)^3)`  

 
`text{Find}\ t\ text{when}\ \ B^(′′)(t)=0:`

`4-e^t` `=0`  
`e^t` `=4`  
`t` `=ln4`  
  `=1.386…\ text{years}`  

 
`text{Checking concavity changes:}`

`text{Since}\ e^t>0, (e^t+4)^3>0\ \ text{for all}\ t:`

`text{At}\ t=1, 4-e^1=1.28>0\ \ =>\ \ B^(′′)(1)>0`

`text{At}\ t=2, 4-e^2=-3.4<0\ \ =>\ \ B^(′′)(2)<0`

 
`B^(′)(ln4)=\ text{Max growth rate}`

`B^(′)(ln4)` `=(72\ 000e^(ln4))/(e^(ln4)+4)^2`  
  `=(72\ 000xx4)/((4+4)^2)`  
  `=4500\ text{brumbies per year}`  

Calculus, EXT1 C3 EQ-Bank 6

The population of Myna birds in a national park is decreasing at a rate proportional to the population at that time.

  1. Write a differential equation that describes the situation.   (1 mark)

  2. If the population was originally 1300 and decreased to 1040 after 5 years, find the expected population after 10 years.  (3 marks)

Show Answers Only
  1. `(dN)/(dt) = -kN`
  2. `832`
Show Worked Solution

i.   `text{Let}\ (dN)/(dt)=\ text{rate of change of bird population at time}\ t\ text{years.}`

`(dN)/(dt) prop N`

`(dN)/(dt) = -kN\ \ (k>0,\ text{decreasing population)}`
 

ii.    `(dN)/(dt)` `=-kN`
  `1/N* (dN)/(dt)` `=-k`
  `int1/N\ dN` `=-intk\ dt`
  `ln absN` `=-kt+c`
  `N` `=e^(-kt+c)`
    `=e^(-kt)*e^c`
    `=Ae^(-kt)\ \ \ text{(where}\ A=e^c)`

 
`text{When}\ \ t=0, N=1300:`

`1300=Ae^0\ \ =>\ \ A=1300`

`N=1300e^(-kt)`
 

`text{When}\ \ t=5, N=1040:`

`1040` `=1300e^(-5k)`  
`e^(-5k)` `=1040/1300`  
`-5k` `=ln(0.8)`  
`k` `=-(ln(0.8))/(5)`  
  `=0.04462…`  

 
`text{Find}\ N\ text{when}\ \ t=10:`

`N` `=1300e^(-0.04462 xx 10)`  
  `=832\ \ text{myna birds}`  

Proof, EXT2 P2 EQ-Bank 2

`n` lines are drawn in a 2-dimensional plane such that no three lines are concurrent and no two lines are parallel.

`S_n` is the number of regions into which these lines divide the plane with the diagram illustrating that `S_3=7`
 

  1. In a similar way, draw diagrams that illustrate `S_1, S_2` and `S_4`.  (1 mark)

  2. Using the results in part (i), make a conjecture about the general formula for `S_n`.  (2 marks)

  3. Use mathematical induction to prove the formula from part (ii).  (3 marks)

Show Answers Only
  1. `text{See Worked Solutions}`
  2. `S_n=(n^2+n+2)/2`
  3. `text{See Worked Solutions}`
Show Worked Solution

i.       `S_1=2`                        `S_2=4`
 
             
 

   `S_4=11`


 

ii.   `text{Consider the pattern above:}`

`S_1=2,\ \ S_2=S_1+2`

`S_3=S_2+3,\ …\ , S_n=S_(n-1)+n`

`S_n` `=S_(n-1)+n`  
  `=S_(n-2)+(n-1)+n`  
  `=S_(n-3)+(n-2)+(n-1)+n`  
  `vdots`  
  `=S_1+(2+3+…+(n-1)+n)`  
  `=S_0+(1+2+…+(n-1)+n)`  
  `=1+(1+2+…+(n-1)+n)`  

 
`=>text{AP where}\ \ a=1, l=n, n=n`

`S_n` `=1+n/2(1+n)`  
  `=(2+n(n+1))/2`  
  `=(n^2+n+2)/2`  

 

iii.   `text{Prove}\ \ S_n=(n^2+n+2)/2\ \ text{for}\ \ n>=0`

`text{If}\ \ n=1`

`text{LHS}\ =S_1=2`

`text{RHS}\ = (1^2+1+2)/2=2=\ text{LHS}`

`:.\ text{True for}\ n=1.`
 

`text{Assume true for}\ \ n=k:`

`text{i.e.}\ S_k=(k^2+k+2)/2`

`text{Prove true for}\ \ n=k+1:`

`text{i.e.}\ S_(k+1)=((k+1)^2+(k+1)+2)/2=(k^2+3k+4)/2`
 

`text{Consider the line}\ d_4\ text{added below that crosses 3 existing lines}`

`text{and creates 4 new regions.}`

`text{Similarly, the line}\ d_(k+1)\ text{will cross}\ k\ text{existing lines and}`

`text{create}\ (k+1)\ text{new regions.}`

`S_(k+1)` `=S_k+k+1`  
  `=(k^2+k+2)/2+k+1`  
  `=(k^2+k+2+2k+2)/2`  
  `=(k^2+3k+4)/2`  
  `=\ text{RHS}`  

 
`:.\ text{True for}\ \ n=k+1`

`:.\ text{Since true for}\ n=1,\ text{by PMI, true for integers}\ n>=1`

Vectors, EXT2 V1 EQ-Bank 14

Use vector methods to find the coordinates of the point that divides the interval joining the points  `A(7,-3,0)`  and  `B(2,2,-10)`  in the ratio `2:3`.  (3 marks)

Show Answers Only

`(5,-1,-4)`

Show Worked Solution

`text{Method 1}`

`text{Let}\ \ underset~c =\ text{position vector of the dividing point}`

`underset~c` `=((7),(-3),(0)) + 2/5((2-7),(2-(-3)),(-10-0))`  
  `=((7),(-3),(0)) + ((-2),(2),(-4))`  
  `=((5),(-1),(-4))`  

 
`text{Method 2}`

`underset~c` `=((2),(2),(-10)) + 3/5((7-2),(-3-2),(0-(-10)))`  
  `=((2),(2),(-10)) + ((3),(-3),(6))`  
  `=((5),(-1),(-4))`  

Vectors, EXT2 V1 EQ-Bank 12

Two planes are flying in directions given by the vectors  `-200underset~i+400underset~j-3underset~k`  and  `300underset~i+250underset~j+underset~k`.

A person in the flight control centre is plotting their paths on a map.

Calculate the acute angle between their projected flight paths, giving your answer correct to one decimal place.  (2 marks)

Show Answers Only

`76.8°`

Show Worked Solution

`text{Let}\ \ underset~a=-200underset~i+400underset~j-3underset~k,\ \ underset~b=300underset~i+250underset~j+underset~k`

`underset~a*underset~b=((-200),(400),(-3))((300),(250),(1))=-60\ 000+100\ 000-3=39\ 997`

`abs(underset~a)=sqrt(200^2+400^2+9)=447.2236…`

`abs(underset~b)=sqrt(300^2+250^2+1)=390.5137…`

`costheta` `=(39\ 997)/(447.2236xx390.5137)`  
  `=0.2291`  
`:.theta` `=76.8°\ \ text{(to 1 d.p.)}`  

Vectors, EXT2 V1 EQ-Bank 9

A parallelogram is formed by joining the points  `P(-2,1,4), Q(1,4,5), R(0,2,3)` and `S(a,b,c)`.

Use vector methods to find `a,b` and `c`.  (2 marks)

Show Answers Only

`a=-3, b=1, c=2`

Show Worked Solution

`text{Opposite sides of a parallelogram are equal and parallel.}`

`=> vec(PQ)=vec(SR)`
 

`vec(PQ)=((1+2),(4-3),(5-4))=((3),(1),(1))`
 

`vec(SR)=((-a),(2-b),(3-c))`
 

`text{Equating coordinates:}`

`-a=3\ \ =>\ \ a=-3`

`2-b=1\ \ =>\ \ b=1`

`3-c=1\ \ =>\ \ c=2`

Vectors, EXT2 V1 EQ-Bank 7

In triangle `ABC`, `M` is the midpoint of `AC` and `N` is the midpoint of `AB`.

Use vector methods to prove that

  1. `MN=1/2CB`   (2 marks)

  2. `MN` is parallel to `CB`   (1 mark)

Show Answers Only
  1. `text(See Worked Solution)`
  2. `text(See Worked Solution)`
Show Worked Solution

i.   
     

`vec(AC)+vec(CB)+vec(BA)=0\ \ \ text{(resultant vector ends at starting point)}`

`vec(CB)=-(vec(AC)+vec(BA))`
 

`text(S)text(ince)\ M\ text (and)\ N\ text(are midpoints:)`

`vec(MN)` `=-1/2vec(AC)-1/2vec(BA)`  
  `=-1/2(vec(AC)+vec(AB))`  
  `=1/2vec(CB)\ \ text(… as required)`  

 

ii.   `text{If}\ \ vec(u) = kvec(v)\ \ (k\ text{scalar})\ \ =>\ \ vec(u)\ text{||}\ vec(v)`

`vec(MN)=1/2vec(CB)\ \ text{(see (i))`

`:.MN\ text{||}\ RCB`

Vectors, EXT2 V1 EQ-Bank 6

Use vector methods to find the coordinates of the point that divides the interval joining the points  `A(-1,3,2)`  and  `B(7,-1,-6)`  in the ratio `1:3`.  (3 marks)

Show Answers Only

`(1,2,0)`

Show Worked Solution

`text{Method 1}`

`text{Let}\ \ underset~c =\ text{position vector of the dividing point}`

`underset~c` `=((-1),(3),(2)) + 1/4((7-(-1)),(-1-3),(-6-2))`  
  `=((-1),(3),(2)) + ((2),(-1),(-2))`  
  `=((1),(2),(0))`  

 
`text{Method 2}`

`underset~c` `=((7),(-1),(-6)) + 3/4((-1-7),(3-(-1)),(2-(-6)))`  
  `=((7),(-1),(-6)) + ((-6),(3),(6))`  
  `=((1),(2),(0))`  

Vectors, EXT2 V1 EQ-Bank 5

Use two vector methods to locate the midpoint of the interval joining the points  `A(3,-2,1)`  and  `B(5,4,-3)`.  (3 marks)

Show Answers Only

`(4,-1,-1)`

Show Worked Solution

`text{Method 1}`

`text{Let}\ \ underset~c =\ text{position vector of the midpoint}`

`underset~c` `=((3),(-2),(1)) + 1/2((5-3),(4-(-2)),(-3-1))`  
  `=((3),(-2),(1)) + ((1),(3),(-2))`  
  `=((4),(1),(-1))`  

 
`text{Method 2}`

`underset~c` `=((5),(4),(-3)) + 1/2((3-5),(-2-4),(1-(-3)))`  
  `=((5),(4),(-3)) + ((-1),(-3),(2))`  
  `=((4),(1),(-1))`  

Vectors, EXT2 V1 EQ-Bank 3

If  `underset ~a = 3 underset ~i-underset ~j`  and  `underset ~b = −2 underset ~i + 6 underset ~j + 2underset ~k`

  1. Calculate  `underset ~a-1/2underset ~b`   (2 marks)

  2. Find  `hat underset ~b`   (2 marks)

Show Answers Only
  1. `((4),(-4),(-1))`
  2.  `hat underset~b=((-sqrt11)/11, (3sqrt11)/11, sqrt11/11)`
Show Worked Solution
i.    `underset~a-1/2underset~b` `=((3),(-1),(0))-1/2((-2),(6),(2))`
    `=((3),(-1),(0))-((-1),(3),(1))`
    `=((4),(-4),(-1))`

 

ii.    `hat underset~b = underset~b/{abs(underset~b)}`

`abs(underset~b)=sqrt((-2)^2+6^2+2^2)=sqrt44=2sqrt11`

`hat underset~b` `=1/(2sqrt11)(-2,6,2)`  
  `=((-1)/sqrt11, 3/sqrt11, 1/sqrt11)`  
  `=((-sqrt11)/11, (3sqrt11)/11, sqrt11/11)`  

BIOLOGY, M7 2014 HSC 5 MC

In which of the following cases would bacteria be described as pathogens?

  1. Bacteria reducing lung function in mammals
  2. Bacteria in the human gut assisting digestion
  3. Bacteria producing insulin as a result of genetic engineering
  4. Bacteria in the mouth preventing growth of harmful bacteria
Show Answers Only

`A`

Show Worked Solution

→ A pathogen is a biological agent of disease.

→ Bacteria ‘A’ is the only one which fits the criteria of a pathogen.

`=>A`

PHYSICS, M5 EQ-Bank 5 MC

An object is projected upwards from the ground, and follows a path as represented in the diagram.
 

Which of the following describes the projectile's horizontal and vertical acceleration at point `Y` ?

  1. Both the horizontal and vertical acceleration are zero.
  2. Both the horizontal and vertical acceleration are `9.8 \ text{m s}^(-2)`.
  3. The horizontal acceleration is `9.8 \ text{m s}^(-2)` and the vertical acceleration is zero.
  4. The horizontal acceleration is zero and the vertical acceleration is `9.8 \ text{m s}^(-2)`.
Show Answers Only

`D`

Show Worked Solution

→ There are no horizontal forces acting on the ball throughout its flight, so its horizontal acceleration is always zero.

→ The ball experiences a net downwards force due to gravity. This results in a constant vertical acceleration of `9.8  text{m s}^(-2)` downwards.

`=>D`

PHYSICS, M5 EQ-Bank 1 MC

Some students were testing the hypothesis that launching a projectile at an angle of 45° will give the maximum horizontal range.

Which experimental setup will best test the hypothesis?
 

Show Answers Only

`C`

Show Worked Solution

By Elimination:

→ In this experiment horizontal range is the dependent variable and launch angle is the independent variable. So, launch angle must be varied (eliminate `A`).

→ To be a valid experiment, the independent variable, i.e. the launch angle, must be the only variable which changes (eliminate `D`).

→ Between `B` and `C`, `C` has a larger range of angles tested, whereas `B` uses too narrow a range of angles to make a valid conclusion.

`=>C`

ENGINEERING, AE 2017 HSC 6 MC

The diagram shows an aerofoil.
 

Which condition needs to be achieved for lift to occur?

  1. Pressure 1<Pressure 2
  2. Pressure 1= Pressure 2
  3. Pressure 1> Pressure 2
  4. Pressure 1+ Pressure 2=0
Show Answers Only

`A`

Show Worked Solution

→ For a net upwards force, the force from pressure below (pushing up) must exceed the force from pressure above (pushing down).

→ Therefore Pressure 1<Pressure 2.

`=A>`

ENGINEERING, CS 2018 HSC 23b

The steel used in the chassis members was tested.

The load–extension graph represents the data collected during the testing of a specimen of the steel.
 

Before testing, the specimen was 1020 mm long with a cross-sectional area of 100 mm².

  1. Calculate Young's modulus for this steel.   (4 marks)
  1. Describe the physical changes that occur in the specimen tested in part (i) when a 20 kN load is applied and then removed, compared to when a 30 kN load is applied and then removed.   (2 marks)
Show Answers Only

i.   Young’s modulus

`F = 20 xx 10^3\ text{N}, l = 1020\ text{mm},  e = 1\ text{mm},  text{A} = 100\ text{mm}^2`

`E` `=(Fl)/(eA)`  
  `=(20 xx 10^3 xx1020)/(1 xx 100)`  
  `=204 xx 10^3`  
  `=204\ text{GPa}`  

 

ii.   → Elastic deformation is produced by the 20 kN load.

→ After initial stretching the specimen returns to its original length.

→ Plastic deformation is produced by the 30 kN load.

→ The specimen stays deformed subsequent to release.

Show Worked Solution

i.   Young’s modulus

`F = 20 xx 10^3\ text{N}, l = 1020\ text{mm},  e = 1\ text{mm},  text{A} = 100\ text{mm}^2`

`E` `=(Fl)/(eA)`  
  `=(20 xx 10^3 xx1020)/(1 xx 100)`  
  `=204 xx 10^3`  
  `=204\ text{GPa}`  

 


♦ Mean mark (i) 51%.

ii.  → Elastic deformation is produced by the 20 kN load.

→ After initial stretching the specimen returns to its original length.

→ Plastic deformation is produced by the 30 kN load.

→ The specimen stays deformed subsequent to release.

ENGINEERING, PPT 2018 HSC 21b

Outline the benefits of using electric motors to power self-driving vehicles.   (3 marks)

Show Answers Only

Successful engines should include three of the following:

→ Reduced amount of tailpipe emissions through the use of renewable energy as the power source.

→ Lighter engine construction produces a better power to weight ratio.

→ Quieter engines reduce noise pollution.

→ Technology enabling simpler integration into an automated vehicle control system.

→ Less moving parts in electric motors mean they break down less often and need less maintenance.

Show Worked Solution

Successful engines should include three of the following:

→ Reduced amount of tailpipe emissions through the use of renewable energy as the power source.

→ Lighter engine construction produces a better power to weight ratio.

→ Quieter engines reduce noise pollution.

→ Technology enabling simpler integration into an automated vehicle control system.

→ Less moving parts in electric motors mean they break down less often and need less maintenance.

ENGINEERING, AE 2018 HSC 17 MC

Aircraft skins can be constructed using either fibre metal laminate (FML) or sheet aircraft-grade aluminium alloy.

FML is preferred in this application because it has

  1. higher density and lower Young's modulus.
  2. higher density and improved fatigue resistance.
  3. higher strength-to-weight ratio and lower Young's modulus.
  4. higher strength-to-weight ratio and improved fatigue resistance.
Show Answers Only

`D`

Show Worked Solution

→ Higher density and lower Young’s modulus are both negative material properties for aircraft skins, as these skins should be light (lower density) and rigid (higher stiffness/Young’s modulus).

→ Additionally, fatigue resistance is important as aircraft skins are exposed to varying air pressures.

`=>D`

ENGINEERING, PPT 2018 HSC 8 MC

In which of the following do all of the processes require plastic deformation to achieve a final shape?

  1. Brazing, casting, rolling
  2. Brazing, soldering, welding
  3. Extruding, casting, forging
  4. Extruding, pressing, rolling
Show Answers Only

`D`

Show Worked Solution

→ Brazing, casting, soldering and welding involve metal in liquid form and therefore do not require plastic deformation. (Cannot be `A`, `B` or `C`)

`=>D`

ENGINEERING, PPT 2018 HSC 7 MC

An arrangement of resistors is shown.
 

What is the total resistance of this arrangement of resistors?

  1. `33 Omega`
  2. `50 Omega`
  3. `150 Omega`
  4. `300 Omega`
Show Answers Only

`C`

Show Worked Solution
`R_(text{total})` `=R_(text{parallel}) + 100 Omega`  
`1/(R_(text{parallel}))` `= 1/R_1 + 1/R_2`  
  `= 2/100`  
  `= 1/50`  
`R_(text{parallel})` `= 50 Omega`  

 

`:. R_(text{total})` `= 50 + 100`  
  `= 150 Omega`  

  
`=>C`

ENGINEERING, CS 2018 HSC 5 MC

Two types of bridge are shown.
 

What are the two types of bridge design shown?

  1. Suspension bridge and masonry arch
  2. Suspension bridge and masonry beam
  3. Reinforced concrete arch and masonry arch
  4. Reinforced concrete arch and masonry beam
Show Answers Only

`C`

Show Worked Solution

 → Both bridges are arch beams, therefore C is correct.

 → In suspension bridges, the deck is suspended from above by vertical cables.

 → Beam bridges are a simple flat beam from one side to another, neither of which are shown here.

`=>C`

ENGINEERING, TE 2018 HSC 21d

Digital logic controls a self-driving vehicle's brakes.
 

Brakes will be applied when all of the following conditions are met:

    • the motor is on
    • the vehicle is in motion
    • either sensor 1 or sensor 2 is activated.

Explain how the logic gates, labelled 1, 2 and 3 in the circuit below, control the vehicle's brakes.   (3 marks)
 

Show Answers Only
  1. Logic gate 1 – AND – both inputs must be ON for ON output
  2. Logic gate 2 – OR – either input ON to produce ON output
  3. Logic gate 3 – AND – both inputs must be ON for ON output (ie brakes are applied)
Show Worked Solution
  1. Logic gate 1 – AND – both inputs must be ON for ON output
  2. Logic gate 2 – OR – either input ON to produce ON output
  3. Logic gate 3 – AND – both inputs must be ON for ON output (ie brakes are applied)

BIOLOGY, M8 2019 HSC 33c

A large epidemiological study was conducted. It used historical data to investigate the association between Herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection and dementia. Dementia is caused by a variety of brain illnesses. Alzheimer's disease is the most common cause of dementia.

The study used the records of 8362 patients with HSV infection and 25086 randomly selected sex- and age-matched control patients without HSV infection. Some of the patients with HSV had been treated with antiviral medication.

The graph below shows some results of the study.
 

  1. Describe the trends shown in the data.   (3 marks)
Show Answers Only

→ The graph clearly shows that individuals with untreated HSV are at a greater risk of developing Alzheimer’s. While people without HSV or treated HSV remain relatively low up to 10 years, HSV patients can have 10 to 15 times the likelihood of developing Alzheimer’s, a trend which increases with age/time with HSV.

→ The treated HSV patients remain relatively low and almost identical to the individuals without HSV until 10 years where there is a sharp increase. However, it is still half the risk of untreated patients.

→ People without HSV have an incredibly low likelihood of obtaining Alzheimer’s, with only a very small increase in the 10 year follow up. 

Show Worked Solution

Data Trends:

→ The graph clearly shows that individuals with untreated HSV are at a greater risk of developing Alzheimer’s. While people without HSV or treated HSV remain relatively low up to 10 years, HSV patients can have 10 to 15 times the likelihood of developing Alzheimer’s, a trend which increases with age/time with HSV.

→ The treated HSV patients remain relatively low and almost identical to the individuals without HSV until 10 years where there is a sharp increase. However, it is still half the risk of untreated patients.

→ People without HSV have an incredibly low likelihood of obtaining Alzheimer’s, with only a very small increase in the 10 year follow up. 

ENGINEERING, TE 2019 HSC 27a

A telecommunications tower with repeater transmitters is shown. The tower is assembled from many individual parts.
 

Explain why detailed drawings are used in the design and manufacture of these individual parts.  (2 marks)

Show Answers Only

→ A scaled ‘Detail Drawing’ is required for a Structural Engineer to communicate information regarding individual parts.

→ To ensure accurate manufacture of parts that fit together during assembly, the detailed drawing would use a suitable scale so all details are apparent (eg 2:1, 5:1 and 10:1).

→ There is a high risk of inaccurately manufactured parts if detailed drawings are not provided.

Show Worked Solution

→ A scaled ‘Detail Drawing’ is required for a Structural Engineer to communicate information regarding individual parts.

→ To ensure accurate manufacture of parts that fit together during assembly, the detailed drawing would use a suitable scale so all details are apparent (eg 2:1, 5:1 and 10:1).

→ There is a high risk of inaccurately manufactured parts if detailed drawings are not provided.

ENGINEERING, TE 2019 HSC 22a

A telecommunications engineer has designed a tower that is to support two mobile repeater transmitters. It is to be located in an urban community.
 

Outline responsibilities the engineer has when placing the tower within a local community.   (3 marks)

Show Answers Only

Answers could include 3 of the following points:

→ Minimise health risks, so tower not erected near high density housing, childcare centres or schools.

→ Designed so visual pollution reduced.

→ Positioned so best possible signals are achieved and dead spots are minimised.

→ Easy accessibility for maintenance without consequences to the community.

→ Construction completed with least possible disruption to the community.

Show Worked Solution

Answers could include 3 of the following points:

→ Minimise health risks, so tower not erected near high density housing, childcare centres or schools.

→ Designed so visual pollution reduced.

→ Positioned so best possible signals are achieved and dead spots are minimised.

→ Easy accessibility for maintenance without consequences to the community.

→ Construction completed with least possible disruption to the community.

ENGINEERING, CS 2019 HSC 11 MC

The table shows materials that have been used to build civil structures over time.

Which row of the table shows the use of the materials in the correct historical order?
 

Show Answers Only

`A`

Show Worked Solution

By Elimination:

→ Stainless steel must have been used after mild steel as it is an alloy of mild steel (not `C` or `D`)

→ Stone was used before iron as it did not require any processes to be formed (not `B`)

`=>A`

ENGINEERING, PPT 2019 HSC 7 MC

A box sits on a horizontal surface. The box begins to slip when this surface is tilted to 28 degrees.

What is the coefficient of friction between the box and the surface?

  1. 0.280
  2. 0.469
  3. 0.532
  4. 0.883
Show Answers Only

`C`

Show Worked Solution

`mu = tan(phi) = tan28° = 0.532`

`=>C`

PHYSICS, M8 2015 HSC 33d

The position of the Sun, star `W` and star `Z` are shown on the H-R diagram.
 

The curves `A` and `B` show intensity versus frequency for star `W` and the Sun, measured from the same distance.
 

  1. Identify which curve (`A` or `B`) represents star `W` and justify your choice.   (2 marks)
  1. Account for differences between stars `W` and `Z` that can be deduced from the H-R diagram.   (3 marks)
Show Answers Only

i.    → Curve A represents star `W`.

→ `W` is hotter so will emit more energy overall, and peak frequency will be higher.
 

ii.   Differences displayed in H-R graph:

→ Star `W` lies in the main sequence and is therefore fusing hydrogen to helium, most likely via CNO cycle as it is a large dense star.

→ Star `Z` is past main sequence and is therefore fusing larger elements.

→ Since star `Z` is cooler than `W` (refer to its H-R diagram location ) but has similar luminosity, we can deduce it is much larger than `W`.
 

Other possible answers could include:

→ Differences in fuel source, size and temperature of the stars.

Show Worked Solution

i.    → Curve A represents star `W`.

→ `W` is hotter so will emit more energy overall, and peak frequency will be higher.
 

ii.   Differences displayed in H-R graph:

→ Star `W` lies in the main sequence and is therefore fusing hydrogen to helium, most likely via CNO cycle as it is a large dense star.

→ Star `Z` is past main sequence and is therefore fusing larger elements.

→ Since star `Z` is cooler than `W` (refer to its H-R diagram location ) but has similar luminosity, we can deduce it is much larger than `W`.
 

Other possible answers could include:

→ Differences in fuel source, size and temperature of the stars.

PHYSICS, M8 2016 HSC 34ai

Identify the TWO types of nucleon and state ONE difference between them.   (2 marks)

Show Answers Only

→ Nucleon types: Neutrons and protons.

→ Difference: Protons are positively charged whereas neutrons have no charge.

Show Worked Solution

→ Nucleon types: Neutrons and protons.

→ Difference: Protons are positively charged whereas neutrons have no charge.

BIOLOGY, M8 2018 HSC 31a

  1. Identify TWO structures that refract light as it passes through the eye.   (2 marks)

  2. The diagram shows the human eye. The two lines labelled `A` and `B` represent two beams of light passing through the eye and stimulating different areas of the retina.   

 

  1. The visual perception will be different at the two stimulated areas.
  2. Identify TWO of these differences.  (2 marks)

Show Answers Only

“

Show Worked Solution

i.    Cornea and lens

ii.   Differences in visual perception at `A` and `B`.

→ At the fovea (where `A` strikes), there is a high concentration of cones, so more detail will be detected and better colour perceived than at the periphery.

→ At the periphery (where `B` strikes) there is low visual acuity (detail) and less colour perception, however, there is good distinction between black and white due to the high proportion of rods.


♦♦ Mean mark (ii) 32%.

BIOLOGY, M8 2018 HSC 21

  1. Identify TWO responses of a named endotherm to a decrease in body temperature.  (2 marks)

  2. Outline the role of the nervous system of an endotherm in maintaining homeostasis when its body temperature changes.  (2 marks)

Show Answers Only

a.   Vasoconstriction and shivering.

b.   Body temperature maintenance in endotherms:

→ This is achieved via negative feedback loops.

→ Temperature receptors in the brain and skin detect changes in body temperature.

→ The central nervous system receives a signal via the receptors.

→ Muscles or glands (effectors) then receive nerve signals sent from the central nervous system.

Show Worked Solution

a.   Vasoconstriction and shivering.
 

b.   Body temperature maintenance in endotherms:

→ This is achieved via negative feedback loops.

→ Temperature receptors in the brain and skin detect changes in body temperature.

→ The central nervous system receives a signal via the receptors.

→ Muscles or glands (effectors) then receive nerve signals sent from the central nervous system.

BIOLOGY, M5 2017 HSC 19 MC

A zebronkey hybrid is the result of crossing a male zebra which has 44 chromosomes with a female donkey which has 62 chromosomes.

How many chromosomes will the zebronkey have?

  1. 53
  2. 75
  3. 84
  4. 106
Show Answers Only

`A`

Show Worked Solution

→ A haploid set of 22 chromosomes came from the zebra and 31 came from the donkey.

`=>A`

BIOLOGY, M5 2017 HSC 12 MC

What is the probability of producing a tall pea plant when a heterozygous tall pea plant is crossed with a homozygous short pea plant?

  1. 0%
  2. 50%
  3. 75%
  4. 100%
Show Answers Only

`B`

Show Worked Solution

→ Half the gametes produced by the heterozygous pea will have the T allele and the other half the t.

→ The homozygous short produces only t that are dominated by the T.

`=>B`

BIOLOGY, M7 2017 HSC 4 MC

What is the role of lymphocytes in the body?

  1. They fight infection.
  2. They initiate blood clotting.
  3. They transport oxygen around the body.
  4. They transport carbon dioxide around the body.
Show Answers Only

`A`

Show Worked Solution

→ Lymphocytes (B and T cells) protect the body from pathogens by coordinating the immune response.

`=>A`

BIOLOGY, M5 2016 HSC 26

Students conducted preliminary experiments across different species to analyse their DNA base composition.

The table shows the experimental data collected.
 

  1. On the grid below, plot the % Adenine vs % Guanine of the species analysed AND draw a suitable line of best fit.   (3 marks)
     
     

     
  2. Identify the relationship shown by the data.   (1 mark)

  3. Explain the relationship shown by the data.   (3 marks)

Show Answers Only

a.  

b.  As % Adenine increases, the % Guanine decreases.
  

c.    Explanation of data relationship:

→ Adenine and Thymine are complementary base pairs. Likewise with Guanine and Cytosine.

→ It would therefore be expected that as the percentage of adenine increases, the percentage of thymine would also increase.

→ Adenine + Thymine + Cytosine + Guanine = 100%

→ It follows that as adenine increases the amount of guanine should decrease.

Show Worked Solution

a.  

b.  As % Adenine increases, the % Guanine decreases.
  

c.    Explanation of data relationship:

→ Adenine and Thymine are complementary base pairs. Likewise with Guanine and Cytosine.

→ It would therefore be expected that as the percentage of adenine increases, the percentage of thymine would also increase.

→ Adenine + Thymine + Cytosine + Guanine = 100%

→ It follows that as adenine increases the amount of guanine should decrease.


♦♦♦ Mean mark (c) 28%.

BIOLOGY, M7 2016 HSC 24

Name an infectious disease and explain how ONE host response is a defence adaptation.  (3 marks)

Show Answers Only

Exemplar solution:

→ A primary immune response is triggered when a person first contracts chicken pox – an infectious disease.

→ Activated B and T cells reproduce in large numbers to fight and destroy the pathogen.

→ The host survives.

→ Subsequent infection with the same pathogen results in an increased secondary immune response.

Show Worked Solution

Exemplar solution:

→ A primary immune response is triggered when a person first contracts chicken pox – an infectious disease.

→ Activated B and T cells reproduce in large numbers to fight and destroy the pathogen.

→ The host survives.

→ Subsequent infection with the same pathogen results in an increased secondary immune response.

CHEMISTRY, M7 2018 HSC 10 MC

Which row of the table correctly matches the reaction type with the reactant(s), catalyst and product(s)?
 

Show Answers Only

`D`

Show Worked Solution

→ The dehydration of an alkanol \(\ce{(C2H5OH)}\) uses a concentrated acid catalyst to produce an alkene \(\ce{(C2H4)}\) and water.

`=>D`

CHEMISTRY, M8 2018 HSC 28

A camp stove using butane as a fuel was used to heat a pot of water inside a small tent. Poisonous carbon monoxide `(text{CO})` gas can be released from these stoves.
 

An investigation was carried out to determine the carbon monoxide concentration in the tent when the clearance height of the pot above the flame was altered. The results are shown in the table.

\begin{array} {|l|c|c|c|c|}
\hline \text{Clearance height (mm)} & 35 & 40 & 45 & 50 \\
\hline \text{CO concentration (ppm)} & 120 & 87 & 50 & 18\\
\hline \end{array}

  1. Construct a graph of the data on the grid.   (3 marks)

  1. Air containing a `(text{CO})` concentration above 30 ppm is considered unsafe to breathe.  
  2. What is the minimum clearance height at which the pot should be placed?   (1 mark)

  3. Increasing the clearance height decreases the efficiency of the stove according to the following table. 

\begin{array} {|l|c|c|c|c|}
\hline \text{Clearance height (mm)} & 35 & 40 & 45 & 50 \\
\hline \text{Efficiency (%)} & 90 & 70 & 50 & 30\\
\hline \end{array}

  1. A bushwalker only has 15.0 g of butane with which to heat 1.0 L of water with a starting temperature of 20°C.
  2. Calculate the highest temperature of the water that could safely be achieved in the tent. (Molar heat of combustion of butane: `DeltaH_(c)` = 2877 kJ mol ¯1)  (4 marks)

Show Answers Only

a.   
     

b.  48 mm

c.   91.1°C

Show Worked Solution

a.   
     

b.  From the graph, the minimum height above the flame is 48 mm.

c.    → The lowest safe distance = 48 mm (part (b)).

→ Fuel efficiency is 40% at 48 mm 

→ `DeltaH_(c) = 0.4 xx 2877 = 1151\ text{kJ mol}^{-1}`

\[\ce{n(C4H10) = \frac{m}{MM} = \frac{15}{4 \times 12.01 + 10 \times 1.008} = \frac{15}{58.12} = 0.258 mol}\]

\(\ce{Energy (C4H10) = 0.258 \times 1151 = 297 kJ}\)

`q` `=mC DeltaT`  
`297\ 000` `=1.0 xx 4.18 xx 10^3 xx Delta T`  
`Delta T` `=(297\ 000)/(4.18 xx 10^3)`  
  `=71.1°text{C}`  

 
`:.` Highest temperature of water = 20.0 + 71.1 = 91.1°C


Mean mark (c) 54%.

CHEMISTRY, M7 2018 HSC 21

Ethylene can be readily transformed into many useful products.

  1. What is the name of the industrial process by which ethylene is obtained from long chain alkanes?   (1 mark)

  2. Ethylene can be converted into vinyl chloride.
  3. Draw structural formulae for vinyl chloride and its polymer, polyvinyl chloride.   (2 marks)

Show Answers Only

a.   Cracking

b.   Vinyl chloride:


      

Polyvinyl chloride:
 
     

Show Worked Solution

a.   Cracking

b.   Vinyl chloride:


      

Polyvinyl chloride:
 
     

BIOLOGY, M7 2018 HSC 11 MC

The following plants were presented to a quarantine office in Australia as part of a shipment of plants entering Australia for the plant nursery trade.


 

Which of the following is a decision that the quarantine office is likely to make?

  1. Plant `W` can enter Australia as it looks like it has 'black spot' which already occurs in Australia.
  2. Plant `X` can enter Australia as it is unlikely the disease it has will transfer to Australian species.
  3. Plant `Y` cannot enter Australia as it has a disease caused by shortage of soil magnesium.
  4. Plant `Z` cannot enter Australia because its appearance suggests it may be carrying live insects.
Show Answers Only

`D`

Show Worked Solution

→ The aim of quarantine is to prevent any pathogens from entering the country.

→ Any plant that appears to contain live insects has a chance of carrying international diseases, and will therefore be quarantined.

`=>D`