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CHEMISTRY, M6 2016 VCE 20 MC

How does diluting a 0.1 M solution of lactic acid, , change its pH and percentage ionisation?

  pH Percentage ionisation
A.   increase decrease
B. increase increase
C. decrease increase
D. decrease decrease
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Show Worked Solution

→ Ionisation of lactic acid: 

→ Adding water decreases . The equilibrium then shifts to partially compensate for this change, favouring the forward reaction.

→ increases in this process although the new equilibrium is lower (pH higher) than the original system.

→ Overall, the pH increases and the percentage ionisation increases.

♦♦ Mean mark 34%.

CHEMISTRY, M7 2016 VCE 7a

Butanoic acid is the simplest carboxylic acid that is also classified as a fatty acid. Butanoic acid may be synthesised as outlined in the following reaction flow chart.
 

  1. Draw the structural formula of but-1-ene in the box provided.  (1 mark)

  2. State the reagent(s) needed to convert but-1-ene to Compound Y in the box provided.  (1 mark)

  3. Write the systematic name of Compound Y in the box provided.  (1 mark)

  4. Write the semi-structural formula of butanoic acid in the box provided.  (1 mark)

  5. Write a balanced half-equation for the conversion of .  (2 marks)

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i.    
       

ii.    and (catalyst)

iii.   butan-1-ol or 1-butanol

iv.   

v.   

Show Worked Solution

i.    
       

ii.    and (catalyst)

iii.   butan-1-ol or 1-butanol

iv.   

v.   

♦♦ Mean mark (ii) 29%.

CHEMISTRY, M7 2015 VCE 5c

A student mixed salicylic acid with ethanoic anhydride (acetic anhydride) in the presence of concentrated sulfuric acid. The products of this reaction were the painkilling drug aspirin (acetyl salicylic acid) and ethanoic acid.
 

  1. An incomplete structure of the aspirin molecule is shown above.
  2. Complete the structure by filling in the two boxes provided in the diagram.  (2 marks)

  3. Sulfuric acid is used as a catalyst in this reaction.
  4. Explain how a catalyst increases the rate of this reaction.  (2 marks)

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i.    
       

ii.    Sulphuric acid increases the rate of reaction by:

→ providing an alternative reaction pathway that involves a lower activation energy for the reagents.

→ this increases the likelihood of successful collisions.

Show Worked Solution

i.    
     

♦ Mean mark (i) 48%.

ii.    Sulphuric acid increases the rate of reaction by:

→ providing an alternative reaction pathway that involves a lower activation energy for the reagents.

→ this increases the likelihood of successful collisions.

CHEMISTRY, M7 2016 VCE 24 MC

Methanol is a liquid fuel that is often used in racing cars. The thermochemical equation for its complete combustion is

Octane is a principal constituent of petrol, which is used in many motor vehicles. The thermochemical equation for
the complete combustion of octane is

The molar mass of methanol is 32 g mol and the molar mass of octane is 114 g mol. Which one of the following statements is the most correct?

  1. Burning just 1.0 g of octane releases almost 96 kJ of heat energy.
  2. Burning just 1.0 g of methanol releases almost 23 kJ of heat energy.
  3. Octane releases almost eight times more energy per kilogram than methanol.
  4. The heat energy released by methanol will not be affected if the oxygen supply is limited.
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Show Worked Solution

Consider option B:

→ 1 mole of produces 725 kJ of heat energy

→

→ Heat energy of 1 gram kJ

♦ Mean mark 40%.

CHEMISTRY, M7 2016 VCE 22 MC

When ethene is mixed with chlorine in the presence of UV light, the following reaction takes place.

Reactions of organic compounds can be classified in a number of ways. The following list shows four possible classifications:

    1. addition
    2. substitution
    3. redox
    4. condensation

Which classification(s) applies to the reaction between ethene and chlorine?

  1. 1
  2. 1 and 2
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 4
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Show Worked Solution

Addition reaction:

→ has added across the double bond (eliminate D).
 

Redox reaction:

→ The oxidation state of decreases from zero in to –1

→ In , the oxidation state of each is +1, which means that the oxidation state of each is –2 .

→ In , the oxidation states are  +1, –1, –1

→ The oxidation state of has increased (from –2 to –1 ) and the oxidation state of has decreased from 0 to –1 , confirming it is a redox reaction.

♦♦ Mean mark 30%.

CHEMISTRY, M6 2015 VCE 8

Hydrogen sulfide, in solution, is a diprotic acid and ionises in two stages.

A student made two assumptions when estimating the pH of a solution of :

Assumption 1: The pH can be estimated by considering only the first ionisation reaction.

Assumption 2: The concentration of at equilibrium is approximately equal to .

  1. Explain why these two assumptions are justified.  (2 marks)

  2. Use the two assumptions given above to calculate the pH of a 0.01 M solution of .  (3 marks)

  3. Some solid sodium hydrogen sulfide, , is added to a 0.01 M solution of .
  4. Predict the effect of this addition on the pH of the hydrogen sulfide solution. Justify your prediction.  (2 marks)

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a.   1st assumption:

→ is significantly smaller than the first ionisation , making its impact on the / pH level negligible.

2nd assumption:

→ is very small, making the extent of the ionisation of very small and hence a minimal change in results.

b.   

c.    Adding :

→ Increases the .

→ This increase causes the 1st ionisation equilibrium back to the left.

→ This left shift in the equilibrium decreases the and the pH will therefore increase.

Show Worked Solution

a.   1st assumption:

→ is significantly smaller than the first ionisation , making its impact on the / pH level negligible.

2nd assumption:

→ is very small, making the extent of the ionisation of very small and hence a minimal change in results.
 

♦♦ Mean mark (a) 27%.
b.   
 

 
 
   

 

  

c.    Adding :

→ Increases the .

→ This increase causes the 1st ionisation equilibrium back to the left.

→ This left shift in the equilibrium decreases the and the pH will therefore increase.

♦♦ Mean mark (c) 35%.

CHEMISTRY, M6 2015 VCE 23 MC

The following table shows the value of the ionisation constant of pure water at various temperatures and at a constant pressure.

Given this data, which one of the following statements about pure water is correct?

  1. The  will decrease with increasing temperature.
  2. The  will increase with increasing temperature.
  3. Its pH will increase with increasing temperature.
  4. Its pH will always be exactly 7 at any temperature.
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Show Worked Solution

→ Table shows that increases as temperature increases.

→ Ionisation equation shifts right as temperature increases, causing an increase in and (eliminate A).

→ pH decreases as and temperature increase (eliminate C).

→ pH of water = 7 at 25°C only (eliminate D).

♦ Mean mark 55%.

PHYSICS, M1 EQ-Bank 1

A physics student comes across a river which runs north to south and has a current of 3 ms running south.

The student starts on the west side of the river at point A and paddles a kayak at 5 ms directly across the river to finish at point B.

  1. Calculate the angle which he must position the boat to travel in a straight line across the river.   (2 mark)

  2. If the river is 100 metres wide, determine the time it takes for the student to cross the river.   (2 mark)

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a.    

b.   

Show Worked Solution

a.   
       

 
 

 
The student must turn 36.9 into the current as shown on the diagram.

 
b.    Using Pythagoras:


 

It will take the student 25 seconds to travel from A to B.

PHYSICS, M1 EQ-Bank 7

Below is a description of the motion of a runner. The motion can be divided into three stages.

Stage 1: Runner travels 120 metres south taking 20 seconds.

Stage 2: Runner turns west and travels at 5 ms for half a minute.

Stage 3: Runner travels directly back to their starting position.

  1. Determine the distance that the runner ran during Stage 2 of their journey.   (1 mark)
  2. Find the displacement of the start point from the runner Stage 2 is completed.   (3 marks)

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a.   

b.   

Show Worked Solution
a.    
   
   

 

b.    Stage 1 and Stage 2 displacement diagram:
 

Using Pythagoras:

 
   
   

 

 
 
   

 

Displacement of the start point from the runner is 192.1 m, N51.3°E.

Data Analysis, GEN1 2022 VCAA 1-3 MC

The histogram below displays the distribution of skull width, in millimetres, for 46 female possums.
 

Question 1

The shape of the distribution is best described as

  1. negatively skewed.
  2. approximately symmetric.
  3. negatively skewed with a possible outlier.
  4. positively skewed with a possible outlier.
  5. approximately symmetric with a possible outlier.

 
Question 2

The percentage of the 46 possums with a skull width of less than 55 mm is closest to

  1. 12%
  2. 26%
  3. 39%
  4. 61%
  5. 74%

 
Question 3

The third quartile for this distribution, in millimetres, could be

  1. 55.8
  2. 56.2
  3. 56.9
  4. 57.7
  5. 58.3
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Show Worked Solution

The distribution’s centre is in the 56–57 group and if the possible outlier is disregarded, the tail of the distribution is spread more to the left → i.e. negatively skewed with possible outlier.

 


♦♦ Mean mark (Q1) 36%.
COMMENT: 54% of students chose . The graph distribution however, shows that more than 50% of the data is to the left of the median.

 
   
  %  

 

 

The 34.5th score lies between 57 and 58, therefore, 57.7.

PHYSICS, M1 EQ-Bank 7

 A plane is travelling at 315 ms north when it passes through a dense cloud and slows down to a velocity of 265 ms for safety precautions.

The plane did not change direction and travelled 2.5 km while it was slowing down.

Using north as the positive direction for all calculations, determine:

  1. the change in velocity of the plane.   (1 mark)

  2. the plane's acceleration.   (2 marks)

  3. the time over which the plane slowed down.   (2 marks)

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a.  

b.    

c.  

Show Worked Solution
a.    
   
   
   

 

b.    Using    (time is not given):

 
   
   
  to the south.  

 

c.    Using  :

 
   
   

PHYSICS, M1 EQ-Bank 5

Plane A is flying due north at 300 kmh when it measures the velocity of plane B flying due south to be 750 kmh.

Calculate the velocity of plane B as measured by the pilots on plane B?  (3 marks)

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Show Worked Solution

Let north be the positive direction and south be the negative direction.

 
   
 
   

PHYSICS, M1 EQ-Bank 3

A hot-air balloon is travelling at a constant upwards velocity of 15 ms.

A passenger on the hot-air balloon decides to time how long it takes a pen to hit the ground when dropped from a height of 50 m.
 

Ignoring air resistance, determine how long it will take the pen to hit the ground.   (4 marks)

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Show Worked Solution

Downwards    positive direction

 
 
 
 
   

 

Time for the pen to fall = 5.07 seconds .

Networks, STD2 N3 SM-Bank 24

The network below shows the one-way paths between the entrance, , and the exit, , of a children's maze.

The vertices represent the intersections of the one-way paths.

The number on each edge is the maximum number of children who are allowed to travel along that path per minute.

The minimum cut of the network is drawn, showing the maximum flow capacity of the maze is 23 children per minute.
 

One path in the maze is to be changed.

Determine the changes in the maximum flow capacity of the network in each of the following changes

  1. the capacity of flow along the edge is increased to 16.   (1 mark)

  2. the capacity of flow along the edge is increased to 12.   (2 marks)

  3. the direction of flow along the edge is reversed.   (2 marks)

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i.   

ii.   

iii.   

Show Worked Solution

i.   
 


 

ii.   
 


 

iii.   
 

Networks, STD2 N3 SM-Bank 22

The network below shows the one-way paths between the entrance, , and the exit, , of a children's maze.

The vertices represent the intersections of the one-way paths.

The number on each edge is the maximum number of children who are allowed to travel along that path per minute.
 

Cuts on this network are used to consider the possible flow of children through the maze.

Determine the capacity of the minimum cut of this network.   (2 marks)

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Show Worked Solution

Networks, GEN1 2023 VCAA 39-40 MC

The network below shows the one-way paths between the entrance, , and the exit, , of a children's maze.

The vertices represent the intersections of the one-way paths.

The number on each edge is the maximum number of children who are allowed to travel along that path per minute.
 

Question 39

Cuts on this network are used to consider the possible flow of children through the maze. The capacity of the minimum cut would be

  1. 20
  2. 23
  3. 24
  4. 29
  5. 30

 
Question 40

One path in the maze is to be changed.

Which one of these five changes would lead to the largest increase in flow from entrance to exit?

  1. increasing the capacity of flow along the edge to 12
  2. increasing the capacity of flow along the edge to 14
  3. increasing the capacity of flow along the edge to 16
  4. reversing the direction of flow along the edge
  5. reversing the direction of flow along the edge
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Show Worked Solution


 

Networks, GEN1 2023 VCAA 36 MC

Four employees, Anthea, Bob, Cho and Dario, are each assigned a different duty by their manager.

The time taken for each employee to complete duties 1,2,3 and 4, in minutes, is shown in the table below

The manager allocates the duties so as to minimise the total time taken to complete the four duties.

The minimum total time taken to complete the four duties, in minutes, is

  1. 29
  2. 30
  3. 31
  4. 32
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Show Worked Solution

Matrices, GEN1 2023 VCAA 32 MC

For one particular week in a school year, students at Phyllis Island Primary School can spend their lunch break at the playground , basketball courts , oval or the library .

Students stay at the same location for the entire lunch break.

The transition diagram below shows the proportion of students who change location from one day to the next.
 

The transition diagram is incomplete.

On the Monday, 150 students spent their lunch break at the playground, 50 students spent it at the basketball courts, 220 students spent it at the oval, and 40 students spent it in the library.

Of the students expected to spend their lunch break on the oval on the Wednesday, the percentage of these students who also spent their lunch break on the oval on Tuesday is closest to

  1. 27%
  2. 30%
  3. 33%
  4. 47%
  5. 52%
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Show Worked Solution

 

Matrices, GEN1 2023 VCAA 31 MC

A species of bird has a life span of three years.

The females in this species do not reproduce in their first year but produce an average of four female offspring in their second year, and three in their third year.

The Leslie matrix, , below is used to model the female population distribution of this species of bird.
 


 

The element in the second row, first column states that on average 20% of this population will

  1. be female.
  2. never reproduce.
  3. survive into their second year.
  4. produce offspring in their first year.
  5. live for the entire lifespan of three years.
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Show Worked Solution

 

Proof, EXT2 P1 2023 HSC 16b

  1. Prove that  , for  .  (2 marks)

  2. Using part (i), or otherwise, prove that for all positive integers ,

  (3 marks)

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i.  

ii. 

Show Worked Solution

i.    


 

♦ Mean mark (i) 39%.

ii.   

 
 
   
 
 

 

 
 
 
 
 
♦♦ Mean mark (ii) 28%.

CHEMISTRY, M3 EQ-Bank 6

Metals such as Lead, Copper, Mercury and Silver do not react with dilute acids but will react with the same acids at higher concentration levels.

Explain why this occurs with reference to first ionisation energy.   (3 marks)

Show Answers Only

→ First ionsiation energy refers to the energy required to remove a valence electron from a metal.

→ Metals react in their ionised state and the less energy that is required to reach this state, the more reactive the metal.

→ Lead, Copper, Mercury and Silver require more energy to remove their outer valence electrons and consequently are only reactive in the presence of stronger oxidising agents.

→ Concentrated acids have more oxidising ability than their dilute counterparts and can react with these metals.

Show Worked Solution

→ First ionsiation energy refers to the energy required to remove a valence electron from a metal.

→ Metals react in their ionised state and the less energy that is required to reach this state, the more reactive the metal.

→ Lead, Copper, Mercury and Silver require more energy to remove their outer valence electrons and consequently are only reactive in the presence of stronger oxidising agents.

→ Concentrated acids have more oxidising ability than their dilute counterparts and can react with these metals.

CHEMISTRY, M3 EQ-Bank 1 MC

In a laboratory, students reacted aluminium with water to produce an oxide and hydrogen gas.

Which of the following equations correctly represents this reaction.

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Show Worked Solution

→ Aluminium is not reactive enough to form an oxide with liquid water over a short period. For this to occur additional energy needs to be input (eliminate B).

→ This can however be achieved by reacting the aluminium with steam, which has more energy than water.

→ Option D provides the only balanced equation of the remaining options.

CHEMISTRY, M3 EQ-Bank 9

Two moles of butane were reacted with 224 grams of oxygen .

  1. Write the balanced equation for this reaction.   (3 marks)

  2. Determine the mass, in grams, of produced by this reaction.   (1 mark)

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i.   

ii.   

Show Worked Solution

i.    Complete combustion equation:

   

→ Two moles of butane require 10 moles of oxygen to fully combust. 

→

→ Oxygen is limiting reagent and butane will undergo incomplete combustion according to the following balanced equation:

   

 

ii.    Using the equation in part (i), 2 moles of will be produced

Recursion and Finance, GEN1 2023 VCAA 22 MC

Timmy took out a reducing balance loan of $500 000, with interest calculated monthly.

The balance of the loan, in dollars, after months, , can be modelled by the recurrence relation

A final repayment that will fully repay the loan to the nearest cent is

  1. $2605.65
  2. $2609.18
  3. $2611.65
  4. $2614.12
  5. $2615.81
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Show Worked Solution

 

 

 

Recursion and Finance, GEN1 2023 VCAA 20-21 MC

For taxation purposes, Audrey depreciates the value of her $3000 computer over a four-year period. At the end of the four years, the value of the computer is $600.
 

Question 20

If Audrey uses flat rate depreciation, the depreciation rate, per annum is

  1. 10%
  2. 15%
  3. 20%
  4. 25%
  5. 33%

 
Question 21

If Audrey uses reducing balance depreciation, the depreciation rate, per annum is closest to

  1. 10%
  2. 15%
  3. 20%
  4. 25%
  5. 33%
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Show Worked Solution


 

 
 
 
 
   

 

Data Analysis, GEN1 2023 VCAA 16 MC

The number of visitors each month to a zoo is seasonal.

To correct the number of visitors in January for seasonality, the actual number of visitors, to the nearest percent, is increased by 35%.

The seasonal index for that month is closest to

  1. 0.61
  2. 0.65
  3. 0.69
  4. 0.74
  5. 0.77
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Show Worked Solution
 
   
   

 

Data Analysis, GEN1 2023 VCAA 15 MC

The number of visitors to a public library each day for 10 consecutive days was recorded.

These results are shown in the table below.

The eight-mean smoothed number of visitors with centring for day number 6 is

  1. 323
  2. 324
  3. 325
  4. 326
  5. 327
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Show Worked Solution


 


 

 

Data Analysis, GEN1 2023 VCAA 13-14 MC

The following graph shows a selection of winning times, in seconds, for the women's 800 m track event from various athletic events worldwide. The graph shows one winning time for each calendar year from 2000 to 2022.
 

Question 13

The time series is smoothed using seven-median smoothing.

The smoothed value for the winning time in 2006, in seconds, is closest to

  1. 116.0
  2. 116.4
  3. 116.8
  4. 117.2
  5. 117.6

 
Question 14

The median winning time, in seconds, for all the calendar years from 2000 to 2022 is closest to

  1. 116.8
  2. 117.2
  3. 117.6
  4. 118.0
  5. 118.3
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Show Worked Solution


 

Data Analysis, GEN1 2023 VCAA 9 MC

A least squares line can be used to model the birth rate (children per 1000 population) in a country from the average daily food energy intake (megajoules) in that country.

When a least squares line is fitted to data from a selection of countries it is found that:

    • for a country with an average daily food energy intake of 8.53 megajoules, the birth rate will be 32.2 children per 1000 population
    • for a country with an average daily food energy intake of 14.9 megajoules, the birth rate will be 9.9 children per 1000 population.

The slope of this least squares line is closest to

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Show Worked Solution

Data Analysis, GEN1 2023 VCAA 7-8 MC

A teacher analysed the class marks of 15 students who sat two tests.

The test 1 mark and test 2 mark, all whole number values, are shown in the scatterplot below.

A least squares line has been fitted to the scatterplot.
 

Question 7

The equation of the least squares line is closest to

  1. test 2 mark = – 6.83 + 1.55 × test 1 mark
  2. test 2 mark = 15.05 + 0.645 × test 1 mark
  3. test 2 mark = – 6.78 + 0.645 × test 1 mark
  4. test 2 mark = 1.36 + 1.55 × test 1 mark
  5. test 2 mark = 6.83 + 1.55 × test 1 mark

 
Question 8

The least squares line shows the predicted test 2 mark for each student based on their test 1 mark.

The number of students whose actual test 2 mark was within two marks of that predicted by the line is

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6
  5. 7
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Show Worked Solution


 

Data Analysis, GEN1 2023 VCAA 5 MC

The heights of a group of Year 8 students have a mean of $163.56 cm and a standard deviation of $8.14 cm.

One student's height has a standardised -score of –0.85 .

This student's height, in centimetres, is closest to

  1. 155.4
  2. 156.6
  3. 162.7
  4. 170.5
  5. 171.7
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Show Worked Solution

 
 
 
 
   

 

PHYSICS, M2 EQ-Bank 3

In the system diagram below, a 5-kilogram mass and masses and are held by high tensile frictionless wire in static equilibrium.
 

Using a vector diagram, calculate the masses of both and .   (4 mark)

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Show Worked Solution

Using the sin rule both and can be calculated:

 
 
   

 

 

 

 

PHYSICS, M4 EQ-Bank 5

Outline and explain the process by which ferromagnetic materials can become magnetised using a bar magnet.   (3 marks)

Show Answers Only

→ A ferromagnetic material contains many free electrons due to its metallic bonding.

→ Each electron has its own magnetic domain but due to the electrons spinning in opposite directions, the domains cancel each other out.

→ Using a bar magnet, stroke the ferromagnetic material in one direction.

→ This causes the electrons to spin in the same direction, hence all of their domains line up.

→ The cumulative effect of all the small magnetic domains creates a large magnetic field, turning the ferromagnetic material into a magnet.

Show Worked Solution

→ A ferromagnetic material contains many free electrons due to its metallic bonding.

→ Each electron has its own magnetic domain but due to the electrons spinning in opposite directions, the domains cancel each other out.

→ Using a bar magnet, stroke the ferromagnetic material in one direction.

→ This causes the electrons to spin in the same direction, hence all of their domains line up.

→ The cumulative effect of all the small magnetic domains creates a large magnetic field, turning the ferromagnetic material into a magnet.

PHYSICS, M4 EQ-Bank 4

A wire with a current of amps running through it was measured to have a magnetic field strength of 2 × 10 T at a distance of metres from the wire.

If the current through the wire is halved and the distance is increased to , find the new magnetic field strength measured.  (2 marks)

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Show Worked Solution

 
   
   
   

PHYSICS, M4 2023 VCE 3a

Two long, straight current-carrying wires, and , are parallel, as shown below. The current in the wires is the same in magnitude and opposite in direction.

Figure 2b shows the wires as viewed from above.
 

On Figure 2b, sketch the magnetic field around the wires, showing the direction of the magnetic field. Use at least five field lines.  (3 marks)

Show Answers Only
 

Show Worked Solution

→ Use the right-hand grip rule to determine the directions of the magnetic fields surrounding the currents, remembering that an means “into the page” and the dot means “out of the page”.

→ As the distance from the wire increases the field strength decreases according to the inverse square law and therefore does not decrease at a linear rate (as seen in the diagram by the greater distances between field lines the further from the wires).

♦ Mean mark 48%.

PHYSICS, M4 2023 VCE 1

Some physics students are conducting an experiment investigating both electrostatic and gravitational forces. They suspend two equally charged balls, each of mass 4.0 g, from light, non-conducting strings suspended from a low ceiling.

The charged balls repel each other with the strings at an angle of 60°, as shown in Figure 1.
 

There are three forces acting on each ball:

    • a tension force,
    • a gravitational force,
    • an electrostatic force, .
  1. On Figure 1, using the labels and , draw each of the three forces acting on each of the charged balls.  (3 marks)

  2. Show that the tension force, , in each string is . Use  .
  3. Show your working.  (2 marks)

  4. Calculate the magnitude of the electrostatic force, . Show your working.  (2 marks)

Show Answers Only

a.   
       

 
b.    System is in an equilibrium state:

→ The sum of the forces must add to zero as seen in the triangle below.
  

→

 
 
   

 
c.   Using the same triangle as part (b): 

 
 
   

Show Worked Solution

a.   
       

 
b.    System is in an equilibrium state:

→ The sum of the forces must add to zero as seen in the triangle below.
  

→

 
 
   

 

c.   Using the same triangle as part (b): 

 
 
   
♦ Mean mark 41%.

PHYSICS, M3 2023 VCE 12

A ray of monochromatic light is incident on a triangular glass prism with a refractive index of 1.52 . The ray is perpendicular to the side of the glass prism, as shown in Figure 14.
  

The ray of light travels through the glass prism before reaching side .

  1. Calculate the critical angle for the glass prism at the glass-air interface.  (2 marks)

  2. Will the ray of light undergo total internal reflection at side of the glass prism? Justify your answer.  (2 marks)

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a.    41°

b.    As the angle of incidence 45° is greater than the critical angle 41°, the total internal reflection will occur on side .

Show Worked Solution

a.    
 
   
   

 

b.    Total internal reflection:

→ The angle of incidence 45° is greater than the critical angle 41°.

→ Therefore, total internal reflection will occur on side .

♦ Mean mark (b) 46%.

PHYSICS, M3 2023 VCE 11

A guitar string of length 0.75 m and fixed at both ends is plucked and a standing wave is produced. The envelope of the standing wave is shown in Figure 13.
 

The speed of the wave along the string is 393 m s.

  1. What is the frequency of the wave?  (1 mark)

  2. Describe how the standing wave is produced on the string fixed at both ends.  (2 marks)

Show Answers Only

a.    262 Hz

b.   Standing wave:

→ When waves encounter fixed ends, they reflect.

→ If the string’s length is a multiple of half the wavelength, the reflected wave combines with the original wave, resulting in interference that forms a standing wave pattern

Show Worked Solution

a.   
 

b.   Standing wave:

→ When waves encounter fixed ends, they reflect.

→ If the string’s length is a multiple of half the wavelength, the reflected wave combines with the original wave, resulting in interference that forms a standing wave pattern

♦ Mean mark (b) 47%.

PHYSICS, M2 2023 VCE 8

Maia is at a skatepark. She stands on her skateboard as it rolls in a straight line down a gentle slope at a constant speed of 3.0 m s, as shown in Figure 8. The slope is 5° to the horizontal.

The combined mass of Maia and the skateboard is 65 kg.
  

  1. In Figure 9, the combined system of Maia and the skateboard is modelled as a small box with point at the centre of mass.
  2. Draw and label arrows to represent each of the forces acting on the system - that is, Maia and skateboard as they roll down the slope.  (3 marks)
     


  1. Calculate the magnitude of the total frictional forces acting on Maia and the skateboard.  (2 marks)

Near the bottom of the ramp, Maia takes hold of a large pole and comes to a complete rest while still standing on the skateboard. Maia and the skateboard now have no momentum or kinetic energy.

  1. Explain what happened to both the momentum and the kinetic energy of Maia and the skateboard. No calculations are required.  (2 marks)

Show Answers Only

a.
       

b.     55.5 N

c.    Momentum:

→ Maia and the skateboards momentum was transferred into the pole and hence into the Earth. Due to the Earth’s very large mass, the effect on its velocity is negligible.

Kinetic energy:

→ The kinetic energy of Maia and the skateboard would have been transformed into heat energy between the contact of Maia and the pole and/or transferred into the work done by Maia’s muscles in slowing herself down.

Show Worked Solution

a.
       

b.     Total frictional forces:

→ Constant speed means that the force down the slope of the incline is equal to the sum of the frictional forces acting on Maia and the skateboard.

   
   

 

♦ Mean mark (b) 50%.

c.    Momentum:

→ Maia and the skateboards momentum was transferred into the pole and hence into the Earth. Due to the Earth’s very large mass, the effect on its velocity is negligible.

Kinetic energy:

→ The kinetic energy of Maia and the skateboard would have been transformed into heat energy between the contact of Maia and the pole and/or transferred into the work done by Maia’s muscles in slowing herself down.

♦♦♦ Mean mark (c) 26%.

PHYSICS, M2 2023 VCE 4 MC

The diagram below shows the force versus time graph of the force on a tennis ball when it is hit by a tennis racquet. The tennis ball is stationary when the tennis racquet first comes into contact with the ball.
 

Which one of the following is closest to the impulse experienced by the tennis ball as it is hit by the tennis racquet?

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Show Worked Solution

→ The impulse is equal to the area under the curve .

→ By splitting the areas into whole number of squares, there are about 10 squares.

→ Each square is

→ Hence the impulse experienced by the tennis ball .

♦ Mean mark 49%.

PHYSICS, M4 2023 VCE 2 MC

The diagram below shows two charges, and , separated by a distance, .
 

 

There is a force, , acting between the two charges.

Which one of the following is closest to the magnitude of the force acting between the two charges if both and the charge on are halved?

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Show Worked Solution

 

 
   
   
   
   

 

♦ Mean mark 55%.

PHYSICS, M3 2017 VCE 16

Standing waves are formed on a string of length 4.0 m that is fixed at both ends. The speed of the waves is 240 m s.

  1. Calculate the wavelength of the lowest frequency resonance.  (2 marks)

  2. Calculate the frequency of the second-lowest frequency resonance.  (2 marks)

  3. Explain the physics of how standing waves are formed on the string. Include a diagram in your response.  (3 marks)

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a.    30 Hz

b.    60 Hz

c.    Standing waves:

→ Produced when a wave travels down a string and is reflected back on itself such that the superposition of the two waves produce an interference pattern to form a standing wave.

→ The two waves must be travelling in opposite directions with the same frequency, wavelength and amplitude.


       

Show Worked Solution

a.     Lowest frequency resonance:

→ Occurs at the maximum wavelength. The maximum wavelength is 8 metres since the half wavelength is the length of the string (4m).


 

b.     When


 

c.    Standing waves:

→ Produced when a wave travels down a string and is reflected back on itself such that the superposition of the two waves produce an interference pattern to form a standing wave.

→ The two waves must be travelling in opposite directions with the same frequency, wavelength and amplitude.


       

♦ Mean mark (c) 43%.

CHEMISTRY, M4 EQ-Bank 36

The enthalpies of formation for a number of chemical reactions are as follows:

                 

               

                         

Calculate the enthalpy change for the fermentation of glucose (reaction below) using the enthalpies of formation above.

   (3 marks)

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Show Worked Solution

 
   
   

BIOLOGY, M4 EQ-Bank 38

  1. What fundamental change occurred with the Neolithic revolution?   (1 mark)

  2. Explain TWO consequences of the Neolithic revolution on human civilisation.   (4 marks)

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a.   → The Neolithic revolution refers to the beginning of agriculture

→ It occurred about 10 000 years ago and includes the first instances of cultivating crops and domesticating animals.
 

b.    Answers could include two of the following:

→ The Neolithic revolution heavily influenced the evolution of the human race, as well as the impacted ecosystems and related flora and fauna.

→ One immediate impact was an increase in human populations. The beginning of agriculture displaced a hunter gatherer lifestyle for many populations, providing an abundance of available food and leading to the first instances of villages and towns.

→ Another impact is soil erosion. The removal of deep-rooted vegetation for crops depleted the environment for many organisms and caused major disruption of the ecosystem. This process leads directly to deforestation which remains a major problem in modern agriculture.

Show Worked Solution

a.   → The Neolithic revolution refers to the beginning of agriculture

→ It occurred about 10 000 years ago and includes the first instances of cultivating crops and domesticating animals.
 

b.    Answers could include two of the following:

→ The Neolithic revolution heavily influenced the evolution of the human race, as well as the impacted ecosystems and related flora and fauna.

→ One immediate impact was an increase in human populations. The beginning of agriculture displaced a hunter gatherer lifestyle for many populations, providing an abundance of available food and leading to the first instances of villages and towns.

→ Another impact is soil erosion. The removal of deep-rooted vegetation for crops depleted the environment for many organisms and caused major disruption of the ecosystem. This process leads directly to deforestation which remains a major problem in modern agriculture.

CHEMISTRY, M3 EQ-Bank 6

Three unknown metals are reacted with dilute and the following observations are made:  

You are told that the metals in question are Magnesium, Platinum and Zinc.

  1. Explain which of the above metals correspond to , and , giving reasons for your answer.   (3 marks) 

  2. Describe the type of reaction between and metal .   (1 mark)

  3. Provide one balanced chemical equation between and either metal or metal .   (1 mark)

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i.     → The metals , and differ by their relative reactivity.

→ Magnesium is the most reactive as it is an alkali earth metal (Metal ).

→ Zinc and Platinum are both less reactive than magnesium. Zinc however exists higher on the reactivity series of metals than Platinum which is the least reactive of the three metals.

→ Therefore, metal is zinc and metal is platinum. 
 

ii.   → A single displacement reaction.
 

iii.   Include one of the following:

Show Worked Solution

i.     → The metals , and differ by their relative reactivity.

→ Magnesium is the most reactive as it is an alkali earth metal (Metal ).

→ Zinc and Platinum are both less reactive than magnesium. Zinc however exists higher on the reactivity series of metals than Platinum which is the least reactive of the three metals.

→ Therefore, metal is zinc and metal is platinum. 
 

ii.   → A single displacement reaction.
 

iii.   Include one of the following:

BIOLOGY, M4 EQ-Bank 37

Climate change is altering the Earth’s habitats and ecosystems, putting many species at risk of global population reductions or extinction.

Justify this statement, giving real world examples of climate change.   (5 marks)

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→ Climate change is altering organisms environments across the globe, causing drastic population reductions and even extinctions of entire species.

→ One reason for sudden changes in populations is the increase in devastating and extreme weather events because of climate change. Storms, fires and extended droughts result in devastating death tolls in both plant and animal communities, eliminating individuals and drastically changing the gene pool.

→ Climate change also produces more incremental impacts on the environment. Steadily increasing temperatures and changes in precipitation patterns are two examples. Many organisms cannot adapt to these changes, causing depopulation  and extinctions.

→ One example of a changing temperature on the environment is ocean acidification. Rising temperatures have a drastic effect coral health and its associated marine life. Acidification of the water also makes it difficult for many crustaceans to form hard shells.

→ The ecosystems themselves also play a large role in climate change, as plants act as a climate regulator due to their ability to store carbon. However, as climate change grows at an exponential rate, plants cannot adapt quickly enough and die out. This results in less carbon storage and a dangerous negative feedback loop.

→ It is therefore accurate to state that climate change alters ecosystems worldwide causing large population declines of species and eventually climate extinctions for some.

Show Worked Solution

→ Climate change is altering organisms environments across the globe, causing drastic population reductions and even extinctions of entire species.

→ One reason for sudden changes in populations is the increase in devastating and extreme weather events because of climate change. Storms, fires and extended droughts result in devastating death tolls in both plant and animal communities, eliminating individuals and drastically changing the gene pool.

→ Climate change also produces more incremental impacts on the environment. Steadily increasing temperatures and changes in precipitation patterns are two examples. Many organisms cannot adapt to these changes, causing depopulation  and extinctions.

→ One example of a changing temperature on the environment is ocean acidification. Rising temperatures have a drastic effect coral health and its associated marine life. Acidification of the water also makes it difficult for many crustaceans to form hard shells.

→ The ecosystems themselves also play a large role in climate change, as plants act as a climate regulator due to their ability to store carbon. However, as climate change grows at an exponential rate, plants cannot adapt quickly enough and die out. This results in less carbon storage and a dangerous negative feedback loop.

→ It is therefore accurate to state that climate change alters ecosystems worldwide causing large population declines of species and eventually climate extinctions for some.

ENGINEERING, AE 2023 HSC 6 MC

The landing gear on an aircraft uses a hydraulic braking system. A force of 60 N is applied at the master cylinder with a piston diameter of 12 mm.

What is the force at the brake calliper with a piston diameter of 42 mm ?

  1. 4.9 N
  2. 17.14 N
  3. 210 N
  4. 735 N
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Show Worked Solution

→ Pressure is the same in both master cylinder and brake calliper

→ Convert units:

→ Using  :

♦ Mean mark 45%.

ENGINEERING, PPT 2023 HSC 27b

A portion of a roller coaster wheel sub-assembly is shown.
 

An exploded pictorial of the wheel sub-assembly is shown.
 


 

Complete an assembled sectioned front view of the wheel sub-assembly at scale 1: 2. Apply AS 1100 drawing standards. Do NOT add dimensions.  (6 marks)

 

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Show Worked Solution


♦ Mean mark 49%.

CHEMISTRY, M4 EQ-Bank 32

The enthalpies of reaction of a number of chemical reactions are as follows:

Reaction 1:      

Reaction 2:                                    

Reaction 3:                                

Calculate the enthalpy change for the reaction below, stating whether the reaction is exothermic or endothermic: 

                (4 marks)

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Show Worked Solution

→ Reverse equation 1 to make a product (changes the sign of the enthalpy).

     

→ Add a multiplier to Reaction 2 as this will allow the to cancel when applying Hess’s Law.

             
 

→ Add the equations and their values and cancel any reactants and products.

   
 

 

→ The reaction is endothermic.

BIOLOGY, M4 EQ-Bank 36


 

  1. What is/are the producer(s) in this food web?   (1 mark)

  2. Identify ONE carnivore and ONE herbivore.   (2 marks)

  3. If the grasshopper species became extinct, explain THREE changes that may occur.   (3 marks)

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a.    Grass, carrots and grain.

b.   Carnivore: Owl or fox

Herbivore: Bird

c.   Extinction of the grasshopper effects:

→ Will result in a greater availability of the grass and grain they (previously) ate.

→ Subsequently, there will be less competition for food among the other species which also eat grass and grain. These species will thrive and an increase in the bird, mouse and rabbit populations would be expected.

→ The grasshoppers’ extinction will also cause its consumers, the bird and the owl, to have to find other food sources.

→ Population fluctuations of birds and owls would be expected as they adapt to new hunting or grazing habits to replace their lost food source.

→ The complexity of nature in such extinction events can be seen particularly on birds who benefit from more grain availability but lose grasshoppers as a direct food source.

Show Worked Solution

a.    Grass, carrots and grain.
 

b.   Carnivore: Owl or fox

Herbivore: Bird
 

c.   Extinction of the grasshopper effects:

→ Will result in a greater availability of the grass and grain they (previously) ate.

→ Subsequently, there will be less competition for food among the other species which also eat grass and grain. These species will thrive and an increase in the bird, mouse and rabbit populations would be expected.

→ The grasshoppers’ extinction will also cause its consumers, the bird and the owl, to have to find other food sources.

→ Population fluctuations of birds and owls would be expected as they adapt to new hunting or grazing habits to replace their lost food source.

→ The complexity of nature in such extinction events can be seen particularly on birds who benefit from more grain availability but lose grasshoppers as a direct food source.

ENGINEERING, PPT 2023 HSC 1 MC

Which of the following is a recognised impact test?

  1. Brinell
  2. Erichsen
  3. Notch
  4. Punch
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Show Worked Solution

→ The recognised impact test among the options provided is option C, Notch.

→ The Brinell test measure material hardness, Erichsen test measures the properties of metals (including hardness and wear) while the punch test looks at material behaviour under stress.

♦♦ Mean mark 33%.

ENGINEERING, CS 2023 HSC 2 MC

Why did steel replace cast iron in bridges built after 1850 ?

  1. It is lighter in weight.
  2. It is easier to produce.
  3. It has greater tensile strength.
  4. It has greater compressive strength.
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Show Worked Solution

→ Steel is stronger, more ductile, and has a higher tensile strength compared to cast iron, allowing for the construction of larger and more durable structures.

→ Cast iron generally has greater compressive strength than steel (eliminate D).

♦ Mean mark 55%.