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Aussie Maths & Science Teachers: Save your time with SmarterEd

HMS, HAG 2021 HSC 19 MC

The graph shows the trends in the incidence of a type of cancer for males and females in Australia from 2004 to 2019.

Which row of the table identifies the type of cancer represented in the graph and the most effective strategy for the federal government to implement in order to reduce its overall expenditure on this type of cancer by 2040?

Show Answers Only

\(C\)

Show Worked Solution
  • C is correct: Graph pattern matches skin cancer trends; prevention most cost-effective.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Screening less effective than prevention for skin cancer.
  • B is incorrect: Pattern doesn’t match lung cancer epidemiology trends.
  • D is incorrect: Letters less effective than comprehensive prevention programs.

♦ Mean mark 55%.

HMS, HIC 2021 HSC 6 MC

For which of the following has there been an increasing mortality rate for both men and women over the past 10 years in Australia?

  1. Lung cancer
  2. Coronary heart disease
  3. Cerebrovascular disease
  4. Dementia and Alzheimer's disease
Show Answers Only

\(D\)

Show Worked Solution
  • D is correct: Dementia/Alzheimer’s mortality rates increasing due to ageing population.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Lung cancer mortality rates generally declining.
  • B is incorrect: Coronary heart disease mortality decreasing over time.
  • C is incorrect: Cerebrovascular disease mortality rates stable or declining.

♦ Mean mark 46%.

HMS, TIP 2021 HSC 3 MC

Which of the following is used when performing a proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) stretch?

  1. Isometric contraction and static stretches
  2. Isometric contraction and dynamic stretches
  3. Isotonic contraction and static stretches
  4. Isotonic contraction and dynamic stretches
Show Answers Only

\(A\)

Show Worked Solution
  • A is correct: PNF uses isometric contractions followed by static stretches.

Other Options:

  • B is incorrect: Uses static not dynamic stretching phases.
  • C is incorrect: Uses isometric not isotonic contractions.
  • D is incorrect: Wrong contraction type and stretch method.

♦ Mean mark 49%.

HMS, HAG 2021 HSC 32a

  1. In relation to ONE population group experiencing health inequities, outline the media's role in influencing public policy.   (3 marks)

  2. Explain the effects of a government intervention for ONE population group that experiences health inequities.   (5 marks)

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i.    Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Peoples

  • Media coverage of Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander health inequities raises public awareness about persistent disparities in life expectancy and chronic disease rates.
  • Investigative journalism highlighting inadequate healthcare access in remote communities creates pressure for government policy responses.
  • Media campaigns featuring Indigenous health advocates amplify community voices and demands for culturally appropriate services.
  • Television documentaries and news reports generate public support for increased health funding and policy reforms addressing systemic barriers to healthcare access.

ii.    Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Peoples

  • The Closing the Gap strategy aims to reduce health disparities between Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Peoples and non-Indigenous Australians. This intervention works by establishing measurable targets for life expectancy, infant mortality, and chronic disease management.
  • The strategy has resulted in improved access to culturally appropriate healthcare through increased funding for Aboriginal Community Controlled Health Organisations. These services consequently provide more effective primary healthcare because they incorporate traditional healing with Western medicine and employ Indigenous health workers.
  • Educational initiatives have led to enhanced health literacy among Indigenous communities. Programs teaching diabetes management and nutrition have enabled better chronic condition self-management. This approach produces measurable improvements in blood glucose control and medication adherence.
  • However, progress remains limited in remote areas where geographical barriers continue to restrict specialist access. Additionally, social determinants like housing and employment still influence health outcomes despite targeted interventions. Overall effects demonstrate modest improvements in specific indicators while highlighting the need for broader social policy integration to address underlying inequality causes.
Show Worked Solution

i.    Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Peoples

  • Media coverage of Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander health inequities raises public awareness about persistent disparities in life expectancy and chronic disease rates.
  • Investigative journalism highlighting inadequate healthcare access in remote communities creates pressure for government policy responses.
  • Media campaigns featuring Indigenous health advocates amplify community voices and demands for culturally appropriate services.
  • Television documentaries and news reports generate public support for increased health funding and policy reforms addressing systemic barriers to healthcare access.

ii.    Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Peoples

  • The Closing the Gap strategy aims to reduce health disparities between Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Peoples and non-Indigenous Australians. This intervention works by establishing measurable targets for life expectancy, infant mortality, and chronic disease management.
  • The strategy has resulted in improved access to culturally appropriate healthcare through increased funding for Aboriginal Community Controlled Health Organisations. These services consequently provide more effective primary healthcare because they incorporate traditional healing with Western medicine and employ Indigenous health workers.
  • Educational initiatives have led to enhanced health literacy among Indigenous communities. Programs teaching diabetes management and nutrition have enabled better chronic condition self-management. This approach produces measurable improvements in blood glucose control and medication adherence.
  • However, progress remains limited in remote areas where geographical barriers continue to restrict specialist access. Additionally, social determinants like housing and employment still influence health outcomes despite targeted interventions. Overall effects demonstrate modest improvements in specific indicators while highlighting the need for broader social policy integration to address underlying inequality causes.

♦ Mean mark 50%.

HMS, HIC 2021 HSC 28b

Analyse how socioeconomic and environmental determinants can contribute to TWO major health issues affecting young people.   (12 marks)

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Overview Statement

  • Socioeconomic and environmental determinants interact significantly with mental health and substance use among young people.
  • These relationships create complex pathways that amplify health risks through multiple interconnected social and environmental factors.

Component Relationship 1: Mental Health

  • Low socioeconomic status directly influences young people’s mental health through reduced access to psychological services and increased family stress.
  • Educational disadvantage is associated with limited future employment prospects, which creates anxiety about economic security.
  • Environmental factors interact with these socioeconomic pressures when young people live in areas with poor infrastructure, limited recreational facilities and high crime rates.
  • Geographic isolation compounds mental health challenges by restricting access to counselling services, youth programs and peer support networks.
  • For instance, rural youth may wait months for specialist appointments while urban disadvantaged youth cannot afford private counselling/psychology sessions.
  • These combined determinants result in higher rates of depression and anxiety among disadvantaged youth because they face multiple stressors simultaneously without adequate coping resources.

Component Relationship 2: Substance Use

  • Socioeconomic disadvantage creates pathways to substance use through peer group influences and limited parental supervision.
  • Low family income correlates with parents working multiple jobs, reducing parental monitoring and increasing unsupervised time for risky behaviours.
  • Environmental determinants amplify these risks when young people live in areas with high availability of alcohol, cannabis and other substances.
  • Geographic location affects substance use patterns, with rural youth often experiencing higher alcohol consumption rates due to social isolation and limited recreational alternatives.
  • Additionally, disadvantaged urban areas often have greater drug accessibility and normalised substance use cultures.
  • The relationship between these determinants demonstrates how economic stress combines with environmental factors to increase vulnerability to substance experimentation and dependency.

Implications and Synthesis

  • These determinant relationships reveal that health issues among young people result from interconnected social and environmental systems rather than individual choices alone.
  • Effective interventions must therefore address multiple determinant levels simultaneously to achieve meaningful health improvements.
Show Worked Solution

Overview Statement

  • Socioeconomic and environmental determinants interact significantly with mental health and substance use among young people.
  • These relationships create complex pathways that amplify health risks through multiple interconnected social and environmental factors.

Component Relationship 1: Mental Health

  • Low socioeconomic status directly influences young people’s mental health through reduced access to psychological services and increased family stress.
  • Educational disadvantage is associated with limited future employment prospects, which creates anxiety about economic security.
  • Environmental factors interact with these socioeconomic pressures when young people live in areas with poor infrastructure, limited recreational facilities and high crime rates.
  • Geographic isolation compounds mental health challenges by restricting access to counselling services, youth programs and peer support networks.
  • For instance, rural youth may wait months for specialist appointments while urban disadvantaged youth cannot afford private counselling/psychology sessions.
  • These combined determinants result in higher rates of depression and anxiety among disadvantaged youth because they face multiple stressors simultaneously without adequate coping resources.

Component Relationship 2: Substance Use

  • Socioeconomic disadvantage creates pathways to substance use through peer group influences and limited parental supervision.
  • Low family income correlates with parents working multiple jobs, reducing parental monitoring and increasing unsupervised time for risky behaviours.
  • Environmental determinants amplify these risks when young people live in areas with high availability of alcohol, cannabis and other substances.
  • Geographic location affects substance use patterns, with rural youth often experiencing higher alcohol consumption rates due to social isolation and limited recreational alternatives.
  • Additionally, disadvantaged urban areas often have greater drug accessibility and normalised substance use cultures.
  • The relationship between these determinants demonstrates how economic stress combines with environmental factors to increase vulnerability to substance experimentation and dependency.

Implications and Synthesis

  • These determinant relationships reveal that health issues among young people result from interconnected social and environmental systems rather than individual choices alone.
  • Effective interventions must therefore address multiple determinant levels simultaneously to achieve meaningful health improvements.

♦♦ Mean mark 35%.

HMS, BM 2021 HSC 27

Explain why the performance elements of decision-making and strategic and tactical development should be introduced to athletes at the associative stage of skill acquisition. Provide examples to support your answer.   (8 marks)

Show Answers Only
  • The associative stage represents the optimal time for introducing complex performance elements because athletes have developed fundamental skill execution during the cognitive stage. Athletes at this stage demonstrate consistent basic technique, allowing them to focus attention on higher-order performance concepts without overwhelming their processing capacity.
  • Decision-making skills develop effectively at the associative stage because athletes possess sufficient motor control to implement choices quickly. For example, a basketball player can now focus on reading defensive formations and selecting appropriate passing options rather than concentrating solely on ball-handling technique. Introducing decision-making earlier would result in information overload and increased errors because athletes lack the automated movement patterns necessary for split-second choices.
  • Strategic and tactical development becomes appropriate when athletes can execute skills with reduced conscious control. Football players at this stage can understand positional play and team formations because their basic skills like passing and receiving are becoming automatic. Early tactical introduction would prove ineffective since cognitive-stage athletes must dedicate full attention to skill execution rather than team strategy.
  • The associative stage enables game-sense development through realistic practice scenarios. Athletes can now participate in small-sided games and decision-making drills because they possess the technical foundation to apply tactical concepts. Consequently, they develop the ability to anticipate opponents’ actions and make strategic adjustments during competition.
  • Performance elements introduced at this stage result in enhanced competitive success because athletes can integrate technical skills with tactical awareness seamlessly.
Show Worked Solution
  • The associative stage represents the optimal time for introducing complex performance elements because athletes have developed fundamental skill execution during the cognitive stage. Athletes at this stage demonstrate consistent basic technique, allowing them to focus attention on higher-order performance concepts without overwhelming their processing capacity.
  • Decision-making skills develop effectively at the associative stage because athletes possess sufficient motor control to implement choices quickly. For example, a basketball player can now focus on reading defensive formations and selecting appropriate passing options rather than concentrating solely on ball-handling technique. Introducing decision-making earlier would result in information overload and increased errors because athletes lack the automated movement patterns necessary for split-second choices.
  • Strategic and tactical development becomes appropriate when athletes can execute skills with reduced conscious control. Football players at this stage can understand positional play and team formations because their basic skills like passing and receiving are becoming automatic. Early tactical introduction would prove ineffective since cognitive-stage athletes must dedicate full attention to skill execution rather than team strategy.
  • The associative stage enables game-sense development through realistic practice scenarios. Athletes can now participate in small-sided games and decision-making drills because they possess the technical foundation to apply tactical concepts. Consequently, they develop the ability to anticipate opponents’ actions and make strategic adjustments during competition.
  • Performance elements introduced at this stage result in enhanced competitive success because athletes can integrate technical skills with tactical awareness seamlessly.

♦ Mean mark 53%.

HMS, HIC 2021 HSC 26

Explain how the application of social justice principles can help improve access to health care in Australia. Provide examples to support your answer.  (8 marks)

Show Answers Only
  • Equity ensures all Australians receive fair access to healthcare regardless of their circumstances. The principle works by removing financial barriers that prevent people from seeking medical treatment. Medicare demonstrates equity by providing universal healthcare coverage where bulk-billing general practitioners charge no fees to patients. As a result, low-income families can access essential medical services without financial hardship. The Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme further illustrates equity by subsidising prescription medications, ensuring life-saving treatments remain affordable for all Australians.
  • Participation empowers communities to identify their specific healthcare needs and develop appropriate solutions. Community involvement occurs when healthcare services involve local populations in planning and decision-making processes. For example, Aboriginal Community Controlled Health Organisations enable Indigenous communities to design culturally appropriate healthcare programs. These services consequently achieve better health outcomes because they address community-identified priorities and respect cultural practices.
  • Access focuses on removing geographical and physical barriers to healthcare services. Telehealth initiatives demonstrate this by connecting rural patients with specialists in metropolitan areas. Remote technology enables people in isolated locations to receive expert medical advice without travelling vast distances. Similarly, mobile health clinics bring essential services directly to isolated communities, ensuring geographical isolation doesn’t compromise healthcare quality.
  • Rights guarantee that all individuals can expect dignified, respectful healthcare treatment. Legal protections ensure healthcare providers cannot discriminate based on cultural background, disability, or sexual orientation. Anti-discrimination legislation reinforces these rights by requiring healthcare facilities to provide interpreters and culturally appropriate care.
Show Worked Solution
  • Equity ensures all Australians receive fair access to healthcare regardless of their circumstances. The principle works by removing financial barriers that prevent people from seeking medical treatment. Medicare demonstrates equity by providing universal healthcare coverage where bulk-billing general practitioners charge no fees to patients. As a result, low-income families can access essential medical services without financial hardship. The Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme further illustrates equity by subsidising prescription medications, ensuring life-saving treatments remain affordable for all Australians.
  • Participation empowers communities to identify their specific healthcare needs and develop appropriate solutions. Community involvement occurs when healthcare services involve local populations in planning and decision-making processes. For example, Aboriginal Community Controlled Health Organisations enable Indigenous communities to design culturally appropriate healthcare programs. These services consequently achieve better health outcomes because they address community-identified priorities and respect cultural practices.
  • Access focuses on removing geographical and physical barriers to healthcare services. Telehealth initiatives demonstrate this by connecting rural patients with specialists in metropolitan areas. Remote technology enables people in isolated locations to receive expert medical advice without travelling vast distances. Similarly, mobile health clinics bring essential services directly to isolated communities, ensuring geographical isolation doesn’t compromise healthcare quality.
  • Rights guarantee that all individuals can expect dignified, respectful healthcare treatment. Legal protections ensure healthcare providers cannot discriminate based on cultural background, disability, or sexual orientation. Anti-discrimination legislation reinforces these rights by requiring healthcare facilities to provide interpreters and culturally appropriate care.

♦ Mean mark 51%.

HMS, HIC 2021 HSC 25

Explain how a health promotion initiative has used strengthening community action to improve the health of Australians. Provide examples to support your answer.  (5 marks)

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  • The SunSmart campaign demonstrates how strengthening community action creates sustainable health improvements across Australia. Such initiatives work by empowering local communities to develop their own skin cancer prevention strategies rather than relying solely on government directives.
  • The campaign operates through community partnerships where local councils, schools and sporting clubs collaborate to implement sun protection policies. For example, surf lifesaving clubs install shade structures and enforce “no hat, no play” rules during peak UV hours. This community ownership ensures policies remain relevant to local needs and conditions.
  • Furthermore, the campaign enables communities to advocate for environmental changes such as shade sails in playgrounds and UV monitoring systems. These community-driven actions result in sustained behaviour change because residents feel ownership over the initiatives. Consequently, skin cancer rates have declined in participating communities, demonstrating how strengthening community action produces long-term health improvements through local empowerment and collective responsibility.
Show Worked Solution
  • The SunSmart campaign demonstrates how strengthening community action creates sustainable health improvements across Australia. Such initiatives work by empowering local communities to develop their own skin cancer prevention strategies rather than relying solely on government directives.
  • The campaign operates through community partnerships where local councils, schools and sporting clubs collaborate to implement sun protection policies. For example, surf lifesaving clubs install shade structures and enforce “no hat, no play” rules during peak UV hours. This community ownership ensures policies remain relevant to local needs and conditions.
  • Furthermore, the campaign enables communities to advocate for environmental changes such as shade sails in playgrounds and UV monitoring systems. These community-driven actions result in sustained behaviour change because residents feel ownership over the initiatives. Consequently, skin cancer rates have declined in participating communities, demonstrating how strengthening community action produces long-term health improvements through local empowerment and collective responsibility.

♦ Mean mark 51%.

PHYSICS, M4 EQ-Bank 10 MC

A current-carrying wire runs vertically through a horizontal cardboard sheet. Iron filings are sprinkled on the sheet and a circular pattern forms around the wire. A student places a compass near the wire and rotates it around in a circular path.

Which statement best explains both the pattern and compass behavior?

  1. The iron filings align with the electric field produced by the moving charges in the wire.
  2. The compass aligns with the magnetic field tangents which follow radial lines away from the wire.
  3. The iron filings form circular field lines due to the magnetic field, and the compass aligns tangentially to these circles, indicating the field direction.
  4. The magnetic field is strongest at the compass location, causing it to point directly at the wire’s centre.
Show Answers Only

\(C\)

Show Worked Solution
  • The magnetic field lines around a vertical wire are concentric circles, as described by the right-hand grip rule. Iron filings align with the magnetic field, not electric fields.
  • A compass needle aligns tangentially to these field lines, always pointing in the direction of the local magnetic field vector.
  • While the magnetic field is stronger closer to the wire, the compass responds to direction, not strength. This confirms it’s a magnetic field (i.e not an electric field) being observed.

\(\Rightarrow C\)

PHYSICS, M4 EQ-Bank 9 MC

Which of the following best describes the direction of magnetic field lines in and around the magnet?

  1. From south to north, inside and outside the magnet.
  2. From north to south, inside and outside the magnet.
  3. From south to north inside the magnet and north to south outside the magnet.
  4. From north to south outside the magnet and south to north inside the magnet.
Show Answers Only

\(D\)

Show Worked Solution
  • Magnetic field lines by convention emerge from the north pole and enter the south pole outside the magnet.
  • Inside the magnet, the field lines travel from south to north, completing a continuous loop.
  • This direction models how magnetic forces act on materials placed near the magnet.

\(\Rightarrow D\)

HMS, HAG 2022 HSC 31b

Analyse how enabling, mediating and advocating processes can lead to sustainable health improvements for disadvantaged groups.   (12 marks)

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Overview Statement

  • Enabling, mediating and advocating processes interact to create comprehensive support systems that address root causes of health disadvantage.
  • Key relationships include skill development empowerment, stakeholder collaboration, and systemic change advocacy.

Enabling and Mediating Relationship

  • Enabling processes directly empower disadvantaged groups by building health literacy and self-management skills for chronic conditions.
  • This aligns with mediating processes which facilitate collaboration between health services, community organisations and disadvantaged populations.
  • For example, diabetes education programs for Aboriginal communities enable individuals to manage blood glucose, while mediating processes bring together traditional healers and medical practitioners.
  • This relationship results in culturally appropriate care that respects traditional knowledge while incorporating medical expertise.
  • The interaction means sustainable improvements occur because communities develop internal capacity while maintaining external professional support.
  • Mediating processes ensure different stakeholders work toward common health goals rather than competing approaches.

Advocating and System Change Relationship

  • Advocating processes influence policy makers and healthcare systems to remove structural barriers that perpetuate health inequities.
  • Advocacy complements enabling processes by creating environments where newly developed skills can be effectively utilised.
  • For instance, advocacy for bulk-billing clinics in disadvantaged areas enables low-income families to use health literacy skills without financial barriers.
  • The significance is that individual empowerment becomes meaningless without systemic change to support improved health behaviours.
  • Advocacy leads to legislative changes like improved disability access requirements that complement individual skill development programs.
  • Thus demonstrating how structural change amplifies the impact of personal empowerment initiatives.

Implications and Synthesis

  • These interconnected processes create sustainable change because they address both individual capacity and environmental barriers simultaneously.
  • The pattern shows that isolated approaches fail while integrated enabling, mediating and advocating strategies produce lasting health improvements.
  • Therefore, sustainable health improvements for disadvantaged groups depend on coordinated processes that empower individuals, facilitate collaboration, and transform systems.
Show Worked Solution

Overview Statement

  • Enabling, mediating and advocating processes interact to create comprehensive support systems that address root causes of health disadvantage.
  • Key relationships include skill development empowerment, stakeholder collaboration, and systemic change advocacy.

Enabling and Mediating Relationship

  • Enabling processes directly empower disadvantaged groups by building health literacy and self-management skills for chronic conditions.
  • This aligns with mediating processes which facilitate collaboration between health services, community organisations and disadvantaged populations.
  • For example, diabetes education programs for Aboriginal communities enable individuals to manage blood glucose, while mediating processes bring together traditional healers and medical practitioners.
  • This relationship results in culturally appropriate care that respects traditional knowledge while incorporating medical expertise.
  • The interaction means sustainable improvements occur because communities develop internal capacity while maintaining external professional support.
  • Mediating processes ensure different stakeholders work toward common health goals rather than competing approaches.

Advocating and System Change Relationship

  • Advocating processes influence policy makers and healthcare systems to remove structural barriers that perpetuate health inequities.
  • Advocacy complements enabling processes by creating environments where newly developed skills can be effectively utilised.
  • For instance, advocacy for bulk-billing clinics in disadvantaged areas enables low-income families to use health literacy skills without financial barriers.
  • The significance is that individual empowerment becomes meaningless without systemic change to support improved health behaviours.
  • Advocacy leads to legislative changes like improved disability access requirements that complement individual skill development programs.
  • Thus demonstrating how structural change amplifies the impact of personal empowerment initiatives.

Implications and Synthesis

  • These interconnected processes create sustainable change because they address both individual capacity and environmental barriers simultaneously.
  • The pattern shows that isolated approaches fail while integrated enabling, mediating and advocating strategies produce lasting health improvements.
  • Therefore, sustainable health improvements for disadvantaged groups depend on coordinated processes that empower individuals, facilitate collaboration, and transform systems.

♦♦ Mean mark 41%.

HMS, HAG 2022 HSC 31aii

Explain how improving access to services and transport can reduce health inequities for a population group.   (5 marks)

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Rural and Remote Populations

  • Improved transport access directly enables rural and remote populations to reach healthcare facilities for preventive screening and treatment.
  • Such access removes the primary barrier, geographic isolation, preventing rural residents from accessing specialist medical services.
  • For example, shuttle bus services allow elderly rural residents to attend regular GP appointments without relying on family transport.
  • Mobile health services bring essential healthcare directly to remote communities, eliminating the need for long-distance travel.
  • This is facilitated by sending specialist teams and screening equipment to rural towns on scheduled visits.
  • Consequently, rural women can receive mammograms without travelling hundreds of kilometres to major cities.
  • Enhanced telehealth services enable rural patients to consult specialists via video conferencing from local medical centres.
  • Thus creating immediate access to expert medical advice that would otherwise require expensive overnight trips.
  • As a result, chronic conditions like diabetes can be monitored regularly, preventing serious complications.
  • Therefore, systematic access improvements directly address the geographic disadvantage that causes health inequities in rural and remote areas.
Show Worked Solution

Rural and Remote Populations

  • Improved transport access directly enables rural and remote populations to reach healthcare facilities for preventive screening and treatment.
  • Such access removes the primary barrier, geographic isolation, preventing rural residents from accessing specialist medical services.
  • For example, shuttle bus services allow elderly rural residents to attend regular GP appointments without relying on family transport.
  • Mobile health services bring essential healthcare directly to remote communities, eliminating the need for long-distance travel.
  • This is facilitated by sending specialist teams and screening equipment to rural towns on scheduled visits.
  • Consequently, rural women can receive mammograms without travelling hundreds of kilometres to major cities.
  • Enhanced telehealth services enable rural patients to consult specialists via video conferencing from local medical centres.
  • Thus creating immediate access to expert medical advice that would otherwise require expensive overnight trips.
  • As a result, chronic conditions like diabetes can be monitored regularly, preventing serious complications.
  • Therefore, systematic access improvements directly address the geographic disadvantage that causes health inequities in rural and remote areas.

♦ Mean mark 52%.

HMS, HAG 2022 HSC 31ai

Outline TWO social attributes that have contributed to health inequities experienced by a population group in Australia.   (3 marks)

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Any TWO of the following

Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Peoples (social exclusion)

  • Social exclusion affects Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander peoples through historical disconnection from mainstream services and community networks.
  • This isolation reduces access to healthcare, employment opportunities, and social support systems that promote wellbeing.

Socioeconomically disadvantaged (educational disadvantage)

  • Educational disadvantage creates barriers to health literacy and employment for socioeconomically disadvantaged groups.
  • Lower education levels limit understanding of health information and reduce income potential, affecting ability to access quality healthcare and healthy lifestyle choices.

Culturally and linguistically diverse (cultural discrimination)

  • Cultural discrimination impacts culturally and linguistically diverse populations through language barriers and prejudice in healthcare settings.
  • This discrimination reduces trust in health services and creates reluctance to seek medical help when needed.

Rural and remote (geographic isolation)

  • Geographic isolation affects rural and remote populations through limited access to specialist services and transport difficulties.
  • Distance barriers prevent regular health monitoring and emergency care access, leading to delayed treatment and poorer outcomes.
Show Worked Solution

Any TWO of the following

Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Peoples (social exclusion)

  • Social exclusion affects Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander peoples through historical disconnection from mainstream services and community networks.
  • This isolation reduces access to healthcare, employment opportunities, and social support systems that promote wellbeing.

Socioeconomically disadvantaged (educational disadvantage)

  • Educational disadvantage creates barriers to health literacy and employment for socioeconomically disadvantaged groups.
  • Lower education levels limit understanding of health information and reduce income potential, affecting ability to access quality healthcare and healthy lifestyle choices.

Culturally and linguistically diverse (cultural discrimination)

  • Cultural discrimination impacts culturally and linguistically diverse populations through language barriers and prejudice in healthcare settings.
  • This discrimination reduces trust in health services and creates reluctance to seek medical help when needed.

Rural and remote (geographic isolation)

  • Geographic isolation affects rural and remote populations through limited access to specialist services and transport difficulties.
  • Distance barriers prevent regular health monitoring and emergency care access, leading to delayed treatment and poorer outcomes.

♦ Mean mark 49%.

HMS, TIP 2022 HSC 30b

To what extent should the types of training and training methods vary when planning a training year? Answer this question in relation to ONE sport.   (12 marks)

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Chosen Sport – Competitive swimming

Judgment Statement

  • Training types and methods should vary significantly throughout a training year for swimming. Key factors supporting this include seasonal periodisation demands and performance optimisation requirements.

Seasonal Periodisation Requirements

  • Pre-season phase demands extensive aerobic base building through continuous training and high-volume sessions. Swimmers require 6-8 weeks of aerobic foundation work to develop cardiovascular capacity for competition demands.
  • Volume decreases as season approaches while intensity increases through anaerobic interval training. This progression ensures swimmers peak physically when major competitions occur.
  • Training shifts from general fitness development to race-specific preparation and skill refinement. Strength training emphasis changes from hypertrophy focus to power development closer to competition.
  • Off-season training incorporates cross-training activities like cycling to maintain fitness while allowing psychological recovery.

Performance Optimisation Through Variation

  • Tapering strategies require dramatic training load reductions 2-3 weeks before major competitions. This variation allows physiological adaptations to consolidate while maintaining race sharpness through quality sets.
  • Different stroke techniques demand varied training methods – distance events need aerobic capacity while sprints require explosive power. Flexibility training becomes crucial during taper to maintain stroke efficiency and prevent injury. Psychological preparation intensifies during competition phases through visualisation and race simulation. Recovery strategies increase during high-intensity periods to prevent overtraining and maintain performance gains.
  • In-season training balances maintenance of fitness with competition readiness through reduced volume but maintained intensity. Skill development varies seasonally from technique refinement in pre-season to race-specific tactical work during competition.

Reaffirmation

  • Evidence demonstrates training variation is essential for optimal swimming performance throughout yearly cycles. Periodisation principles prove that systematic variation prevents plateaus and enables peak performance timing.
  • Without significant variation, swimmers risk overtraining, injury, and suboptimal competition results.
Show Worked Solution

Chosen Sport – Competitive swimming

Judgment Statement

  • Training types and methods should vary significantly throughout a training year for swimming. Key factors supporting this include seasonal periodisation demands and performance optimisation requirements.

Seasonal Periodisation Requirements

  • Pre-season phase demands extensive aerobic base building through continuous training and high-volume sessions. Swimmers require 6-8 weeks of aerobic foundation work to develop cardiovascular capacity for competition demands.
  • Volume decreases as season approaches while intensity increases through anaerobic interval training. This progression ensures swimmers peak physically when major competitions occur.
  • Training shifts from general fitness development to race-specific preparation and skill refinement. Strength training emphasis changes from hypertrophy focus to power development closer to competition.
  • Off-season training incorporates cross-training activities like cycling to maintain fitness while allowing psychological recovery.

Performance Optimisation Through Variation

  • Tapering strategies require dramatic training load reductions 2-3 weeks before major competitions. This variation allows physiological adaptations to consolidate while maintaining race sharpness through quality sets.
  • Different stroke techniques demand varied training methods – distance events need aerobic capacity while sprints require explosive power. Flexibility training becomes crucial during taper to maintain stroke efficiency and prevent injury. Psychological preparation intensifies during competition phases through visualisation and race simulation. Recovery strategies increase during high-intensity periods to prevent overtraining and maintain performance gains.
  • In-season training balances maintenance of fitness with competition readiness through reduced volume but maintained intensity. Skill development varies seasonally from technique refinement in pre-season to race-specific tactical work during competition.

Reaffirmation

  • Evidence demonstrates training variation is essential for optimal swimming performance throughout yearly cycles. Periodisation principles prove that systematic variation prevents plateaus and enables peak performance timing.
  • Without significant variation, swimmers risk overtraining, injury, and suboptimal competition results.

♦♦ Mean mark 39%.

HMS, HIC 2022 HSC 27a

  1. Describe the nature of ONE major health issue affecting young people in Australia.   (3 marks)

  2. Explain the impact of TWO strategies that have been implemented to target a major health issue affecting young people.   (5 marks)

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i.    Health issue selected: Mental health problems and illnesses    

  • Mental health problems among young people involve conditions that affect emotional, psychological and social wellbeing. These conditions include anxiety disorders, depression, and stress-related disorders that significantly impact daily functioning during critical developmental periods.
  • The nature of mental health problems involves biological, psychological and social factors. These conditions manifest through symptoms like persistent worry, mood changes, social withdrawal and difficulty concentrating. Mental health issues frequently occur together with substance use and academic difficulties.

ii.   Strategy 1: headspace Youth Mental Health Services

  • headspace provides early intervention mental health services for young people aged 12-25. These services establish accessible, youth-friendly environments where young people can receive counselling and support. Improved help-seeking behaviours follow as young people feel comfortable accessing services designed specifically for them. headspace reduces barriers to mental health care by offering free services in local communities. This leads to earlier identification of mental health problems and prevents escalation to more serious conditions requiring intensive treatment.

Strategy 2: Mental Health Education in Schools

  • School-based mental health education programs like ‘R U OK?’ teach young people to recognise warning signs and support peers. Program delivery generates awareness about mental health issues and dimishes stigma surrounding help-seeking. Enhanced mental health literacy emerges among students who can identify symptoms and access appropriate support. Peer support networks develop where young people feel comfortable discussing mental health challenges and seeking help when needed.

Show Worked Solution

i.    Health issue selected: Mental health problems and illnesses    

  • Mental health problems among young people involve conditions that affect emotional, psychological and social wellbeing. These conditions include anxiety disorders, depression, and stress-related disorders that significantly impact daily functioning during critical developmental periods.
  • The nature of mental health problems involves biological, psychological and social factors. These conditions manifest through symptoms like persistent worry, mood changes, social withdrawal and difficulty concentrating. Mental health issues frequently occur together with substance use and academic difficulties.

ii.   Strategy 1: headspace Youth Mental Health Services

  • headspace provides early intervention mental health services for young people aged 12-25. These services establish accessible, youth-friendly environments where young people can receive counselling and support. Improved help-seeking behaviours follow as young people feel comfortable accessing services designed specifically for them. headspace reduces barriers to mental health care by offering free services in local communities. This leads to earlier identification of mental health problems and prevents escalation to more serious conditions requiring intensive treatment.

Strategy 2: Mental Health Education in Schools

  • School-based mental health education programs like ‘R U OK?’ teach young people to recognise warning signs and support peers. Program delivery generates awareness about mental health issues and dimishes stigma surrounding help-seeking. Enhanced mental health literacy emerges among students who can identify symptoms and access appropriate support. Peer support networks develop where young people feel comfortable discussing mental health challenges and seeking help when needed.

♦♦ Mean mark (ii) 27%.

HMS, BM 2022 HSC 26

To what extent should practice methods vary according to the ability, confidence and prior experience of learners? Provide examples to support your answer.   (8 marks)

Show Answers Only

Judgment Statement

  • Practice methods should vary significantly according to learner characteristics, with ability, confidence and prior experience determining the most appropriate approach for skill development and performance improvement.

Beginner Learners

  • Beginners with low ability, confidence and minimal prior experience require structured, simple practice methods. Massed practice suits beginners learning discrete skills like tennis serves because continuous repetition builds muscle memory and basic technique. This occurs because beginners need frequent attempts to establish movement patterns. Whole practice methods work effectively for simple skills, allowing beginners to understand complete movement sequences. For example, teaching a beginner swimmer the complete freestyle stroke enables them to grasp the overall coordination rather than focusing on isolated arm movements.

Advanced Learners

  • Advanced learners with high ability, confidence and extensive prior experience benefit from varied, challenging practice methods. Distributed practice allows advanced performers to focus on skill refinement during shorter, intense sessions. This approach creates opportunities for feedback and technique adjustment between practice periods. Random practice challenges advanced learners by mixing different skills unpredictably. For example, an experienced basketball player practicing shooting, dribbling and passing in random order develops adaptability and game-realistic decision-making skills.

Reaffirmation

  • Evidence demonstrates that practice methods must vary considerably based on learner characteristics. Appropriate matching of practice methods to ability, confidence and experience maximises skill development efficiency whilst preventing frustration and performance plateaus.
Show Worked Solution

Judgment Statement

  • Practice methods should vary significantly according to learner characteristics, with ability, confidence and prior experience determining the most appropriate approach for skill development and performance improvement.

Beginner Learners

  • Beginners with low ability, confidence and minimal prior experience require structured, simple practice methods. Massed practice suits beginners learning discrete skills like tennis serves because continuous repetition builds muscle memory and basic technique. This occurs because beginners need frequent attempts to establish movement patterns. Whole practice methods work effectively for simple skills, allowing beginners to understand complete movement sequences. For example, teaching a beginner swimmer the complete freestyle stroke enables them to grasp the overall coordination rather than focusing on isolated arm movements.

Advanced Learners

  • Advanced learners with high ability, confidence and extensive prior experience benefit from varied, challenging practice methods. Distributed practice allows advanced performers to focus on skill refinement during shorter, intense sessions. This approach creates opportunities for feedback and technique adjustment between practice periods. Random practice challenges advanced learners by mixing different skills unpredictably. For example, an experienced basketball player practicing shooting, dribbling and passing in random order develops adaptability and game-realistic decision-making skills.

Reaffirmation

  • Evidence demonstrates that practice methods must vary considerably based on learner characteristics. Appropriate matching of practice methods to ability, confidence and experience maximises skill development efficiency whilst preventing frustration and performance plateaus.

♦♦ Mean mark 41%.

HMS, HAG 2022 HSC 25

Organisations suggest that governments should increase the funding for early intervention and prevention strategies for cancer.

Analyse the effects this increased funding would have on Australia's future health care expenditure. Provide examples to support your answer.   (8 marks)

Show Answers Only

Overview Statement

  • Increased funding for cancer prevention and early intervention would create significant long-term reductions in Australia’s healthcare expenditure. Prevention strategies reduce treatment demands through cost-effective early action programs.

Component Relationship 1: Prevention Programs and Cost Savings

  • Enhanced funding for cancer prevention programs enables expanded screening services and campaigns like ‘SunSmart’ targeting skin cancer prevention. Early detection through BreastScreen Australia’s biennial mammograms reduces expensive late-stage treatments requiring surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation therapy. Advanced breast cancer treatment involves months of hospital admissions and specialist oncology care. Prevention investment demonstrates how early intervention funding leads to substantial cost savings. Early-stage cancer treatment costs considerably less than advanced cancer management requiring ongoing palliative care. Early detection results in patients gaining additional years with five-year survival rates exceeding 90%.

Component Relationship 2: Health System Capacity and Resource Allocation

  • Increased prevention funding shifts healthcare resources from reactive treatment to proactive intervention. Resource reallocation creates reduced demand on hospital emergency departments and specialist oncology services. Enhanced bowel cancer screening programs identify cancers before symptoms appear, resulting in shorter hospital stays and outpatient procedures. Prevention investment demonstrates how healthcare spending redistributes more efficiently whilst improving survival rates.

Implications and Synthesis

  • Prevention funding operates as cost-effective investment strategy with measurable returns over decades. Strategic investment prevents expensive treatment sequences whilst improving population health outcomes. Healthcare expenditure transforms from costly crisis management to sustainable health maintenance through targeted prevention funding.

Show Worked Solution

Overview Statement

  • Increased funding for cancer prevention and early intervention would create significant long-term reductions in Australia’s healthcare expenditure. Prevention strategies reduce treatment demands through cost-effective early action programs.

Component Relationship 1: Prevention Programs and Cost Savings

  • Enhanced funding for cancer prevention programs enables expanded screening services and campaigns like ‘SunSmart’ targeting skin cancer prevention. Early detection through BreastScreen Australia’s biennial mammograms reduces expensive late-stage treatments requiring surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation therapy. Advanced breast cancer treatment involves months of hospital admissions and specialist oncology care. Prevention investment demonstrates how early intervention funding leads to substantial cost savings. Early-stage cancer treatment costs considerably less than advanced cancer management requiring ongoing palliative care. Early detection results in patients gaining additional years with five-year survival rates exceeding 90%.

Component Relationship 2: Health System Capacity and Resource Allocation

  • Increased prevention funding shifts healthcare resources from reactive treatment to proactive intervention. Resource reallocation creates reduced demand on hospital emergency departments and specialist oncology services. Enhanced bowel cancer screening programs identify cancers before symptoms appear, resulting in shorter hospital stays and outpatient procedures. Prevention investment demonstrates how healthcare spending redistributes more efficiently whilst improving survival rates.

Implications and Synthesis

  • Prevention funding operates as cost-effective investment strategy with measurable returns over decades. Strategic investment prevents expensive treatment sequences whilst improving population health outcomes. Healthcare expenditure transforms from costly crisis management to sustainable health maintenance through targeted prevention funding.

♦♦ Mean mark 47%.

HMS, HAG 2022 HSC 24

Select ONE of the following conditions to answer BOTH parts (a) and (b) of this question.

  • Diabetes
  • Respiratory disease
  • Injury
  • Mental health problems and illnesses
  1. Outline the extent of this condition in Australia.   (3 marks)

  2. Explain how sociocultural determinants affect ONE group at risk of this condition.   (4 marks)

Show Answers Only

a.    Condition selected – Mental health problems and illnesses

  • Mental health conditions affect approximately one in five Australians, making them highly prevalent. Young people aged 16-24 experience the highest rates, with significantly higher prevalence than older age groups. Anxiety disorders are the most common type.
  • The prevalence has increased significantly among young people, particularly females, over the past decade. Mental health conditions represent one of the leading causes of disease burden in Australia, demonstrating a major public health challenge.

b.    Group at risk: Young people aged 16-24

  • Sociocultural determinants significantly influence mental health outcomes for young people. Social media and peer pressure create unrealistic expectations and comparison culture, leading to anxiety and depression. This occurs because young people are particularly vulnerable to social validation.
  • Family dynamics and socioeconomic status affect access to support systems and professional help. Low-income families often cannot afford private mental health services, resulting in delayed treatment. Social isolation and stigma prevent young people from seeking help.
  • Educational pressures and career uncertainty contribute to stress and anxiety. These factors interact to compound mental health risks, particularly for disadvantaged young people who face multiple sociocultural barriers.
Show Worked Solution

a.    Condition selected – Mental health problems and illnesses

  • Mental health conditions affect approximately one in five Australians, making them highly prevalent. Young people aged 16-24 experience the highest rates, with significantly higher prevalence than older age groups. Anxiety disorders are the most common type.
  • The prevalence has increased significantly among young people, particularly females, over the past decade. Mental health conditions represent one of the leading causes of disease burden in Australia, demonstrating a major public health challenge.

b.    Group at risk: Young people aged 16-24

  • Sociocultural determinants significantly influence mental health outcomes for young people. Social media and peer pressure create unrealistic expectations and comparison culture, leading to anxiety and depression. This occurs because young people are particularly vulnerable to social validation.
  • Family dynamics and socioeconomic status affect access to support systems and professional help. Low-income families often cannot afford private mental health services, resulting in delayed treatment. Social isolation and stigma prevent young people from seeking help.
  • Educational pressures and career uncertainty contribute to stress and anxiety. These factors interact to compound mental health risks, particularly for disadvantaged young people who face multiple sociocultural barriers.

♦ Mean mark (b) 55%.

v1 Measurement, STD2 M1 2020 HSC 5 MC

A pencil is measured to be 12.8 cm long, correct to one decimal place.

What is the percentage error in this measurement?

  1. 0.20%
  2. 0.39%
  3. 0.78%
  4. 1.56%
Show Answers Only

`B`

Show Worked Solution

♦ Mean mark 44%.

`text{Absolute error} = 1/2 xx \text{precision} = 1/2 xx 0.1 = 0.05\ \text{cm}`

`%  \text{error}` `= \frac{0.05}{12.8} xx 100`
  `= 0.390625%`
  `= 0.39%`

`⇒ B`

v1 Measurement, STD2 M1 2020 HSC 2 MC

What is 0.0004782 expressed in standard form with two significant figures?

  1. `4.8 xx 10^(-4)`
  2. `4.78 xx 10^(-4)`
  3. `4.8 xx 10^(-5)`
  4. `4.78 xx 10^(-5)`
Show Answers Only

`A`

Show Worked Solution

♦ Mean mark 39%.
COMMENT: Students often round incorrectly when converting to standard form.
`0.0004782` `= 4.782 xx 10^(-4)`
  `= 4.8 xx 10^(-4)\ \ \ text{(to 2 sig fig)}`

`⇒ A`

v1 Measurement, STD2 M1 2019 HSC 8 MC

A newborn baby’s length is recorded as 52.4 cm.

What is the absolute error of this measurement?

  1. 0.25 cm
  2. 0.5 cm
  3. 1 cm
  4. 2 cm
Show Answers Only

`B`

Show Worked Solution

♦ Mean mark 48%.

`text{Absolute error}` `= 1/2 xx\ text{precision}`
  `= 1/2 xx 1\ text{ cm}`
  `= 0.5\ text{ cm}`

`⇒ B`

v1 Measurement, STD2 M1 2015 HSC 12 MC

A sprinter’s reaction time at the start of a race was recorded as 0.25 seconds, correct to the nearest hundredth of a second.

What is the percentage error in this measurement, correct to one significant figure?

  1. 0.5%
  2. 1%
  3. 2%
  4. 3%
Show Answers Only

`C`

Show Worked Solution
♦ Mean mark 43%.

`text{Absolute error}\ =1/2 xx text{precision}\ = 1/2 xx 0.01 = 0.005\ text{s}`

`text{% error}` `=\ frac{text{absolute error}}{text{measurement}} xx 100%`  
  `=0.005/0.25 xx 100%`  
  `=2%`  

 
`⇒ C`

v1 Measurement, STD2 M1 2014 HSC 10 MC

The height of Mount Kosciuszko is measured to be 2228.1 m above sea level.

What is the percentage error in this measurement?

  1. 0.001%
  2. 0.002%
  3. 0.005%
  4. 0.011%
Show Answers Only

`B`

Show Worked Solution
 
♦ Mean mark 50%

`text{Absolute error}\ = 1/2 xx text{precision}\ = 1/2 xx 0.1 = 0.05\ text{m}`

`text{% error}` `= \frac{text{absolute error}}{text{measurement}} xx 100%`  
  `= 0.05 / 2228.1 xx 100%`  
  `= 0.0022%`  

 
`⇒  B`

HMS, TIP 2022 HSC 21b

Describe the effects of regular anaerobic training on an athlete's performance.
Provide an example to support your answer.   (4 marks)

Show Answers Only

  • Regular anaerobic training produces physiological adaptations that enhance high-intensity performance. A basketball player completing regular anaerobic training experiences muscle hypertrophy as fast-twitch muscle fibres increase in size. This results in greater power output for explosive jumping and sprinting.
  • The basketball player’s lactate tolerance improves through enhanced buffering capacity. They develop the ability to maintain higher intensities during fast breaks despite lactate accumulation. Their neuromuscular coordination becomes more efficient, allowing faster muscle recruitment for quick direction changes.
  • These adaptations enable more explosive movements during games, whilst improved lactate tolerance allows sustained high-intensity play throughout quarters without performance decline.
Show Worked Solution
  • Regular anaerobic training produces physiological adaptations that enhance high-intensity performance. A basketball player completing regular anaerobic training experiences muscle hypertrophy as fast-twitch muscle fibres increase in size. This results in greater power output for explosive jumping and sprinting.
  • The basketball player’s lactate tolerance improves through enhanced buffering capacity. They develop the ability to maintain higher intensities during fast breaks despite lactate accumulation. Their neuromuscular coordination becomes more efficient, allowing faster muscle recruitment for quick direction changes.
  • These adaptations enable more explosive movements during games, whilst improved lactate tolerance allows sustained high-intensity play throughout quarters without performance decline.

♦♦ Mean mark 45%.

HMS, HAG 2022 HSC 19 MC

Which row in the table shows the most effective combination of health care approaches for men being treated for the current leading cause of cancer deaths in Australia?

Show Answers Only

\( C \)

Show Worked Solution
  • C is correct: Chemotherapy is standard treatment for lung cancer; acupuncture helps manage side effects.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Surgery not always primary treatment; iridology lacks evidence base.
  • B is incorrect: Psychology not primary treatment for cancer itself.
  • D is incorrect: Radiation therapy less common as primary treatment for lung cancer.

♦♦ Mean mark 46%.

HMS, TIP 2022 HSC 15 MC

An athlete is aiming to maximise their muscular strength when performing a bench press.

Which row in the table represents the most effective four week application of progressive overload?

Show Answers Only

\( A \)

Show Worked Solution
  • A is correct: Systematic weight increases with consistent volume optimises strength development.

Other Options:

  • B is incorrect: No weight progression; increasing reps reduces strength focus.
  • C is incorrect: Inconsistent progression pattern doesn’t optimise strength gains.
  • D is incorrect: Erratic volume changes and sudden weight jumps.

♦♦ Mean mark 52%.

HMS, BM 2022 HSC 14 MC

The diagram shows the scoring system that a coach is using to assess the kicking accuracy of players in a team.

Each player is given 15 kicking attempts to score as many points as possible from the spot marked P, which is located 35 metres away from each post. The coach tallies the number of times each player scores 0,1,3 and 6 points.

Which row in the table represents the player who is most likely to be in the cognitive stage of skill acquisition?

Show Answers Only

\( B \)

Show Worked Solution
  • B is correct: High variability and inconsistent performance indicates cognitive stage learning.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Consistent high scores suggest autonomous stage performance.
  • C is incorrect: Too many misses for cognitive stage learner.
  • D is incorrect: Moderate consistency suggests associative stage performance.

♦♦ Mean mark 48%.

HMS, HAG 2022 HSC 13 MC

The number of palliative care hospital admissions in Australia increased in the period 2013-2018.

Which of the following was the most significant factor that contributed to this increase?

  1. Increased prevalence of dementia and cancer
  2. Longer waiting times for elective surgery in public hospitals
  3. Increased mortality rates from diabetes and mental health illness
  4. A greater number of Australians participating in health screening programs
Show Answers Only

\( A \)

Show Worked Solution
  • A is correct: Ageing population leads to increased dementia and cancer requiring palliative care.

Other Options:

  • B is incorrect: Elective surgery delays don’t directly cause palliative admissions.
  • C is incorrect: Diabetes and mental health don’t typically require palliative care.
  • D is incorrect: Screening programs detect disease early, reducing palliative needs.

♦ Mean mark 53%.

HMS, HAG 2022 HSC 10 MC

Which strategy could the Australian Government implement to most effectively address the inequity of access to health care for socioeconomically disadvantaged individuals?

  1. Decreasing the Medicare rebate for health services
  2. Supplying free child immunisations to all Australian families
  3. Providing additional funding to train more doctors and nurses
  4. Increasing the number of medical centres with doctors who bulk bill patients
Show Answers Only

\( D \)

Show Worked Solution
  • D is correct: Bulk billing removes financial barriers for disadvantaged patients accessing healthcare.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Reducing rebates would worsen access for disadvantaged groups.
  • B is incorrect: Already available free; doesn’t address broader access issues.
  • C is incorrect: Doesn’t directly remove financial barriers to access.

♦♦ Mean mark 38%.

PHYSICS, M4 EQ-Bank 6 MC

Two long, straight, parallel conductors are placed 3.0 cm apart and carry equal currents of 20 A in opposite directions. Which of the following best describes the magnetic field at the midpoint between the two wires?

  1. The magnetic field is zero because the wires carry equal and opposite currents.
  2. The magnetic field at the midpoint is caused only by one of the wires, since the other field is canceled out by symmetry.
  3. The magnetic fields due to each wire are in the same direction and add, resulting in a non-zero net field.
  4. The magnetic field at the midpoint is directed along the wires due to symmetry.
Show Answers Only

\(C\)

Show Worked Solution
  • Use the right-hand grip rule, put your thumb in the direction of the current, and the fingers show magnetic field direction around wire.
  • At the midpoint the left wire’s (e.g., current up) field is into the page and the right wire’s (current down) field is also into the page
  • So both fields at the midpoint are in the same direction therefore they add together so the magnetic field at the midpoint is non-zero.

\(\Rightarrow C\)

PHYSICS, M4 EQ-Bank 11

An electrical technician is installing a vertical power cable that will carry 60 A of current upward. For safety reasons, the magnetic field strength must not exceed \(2.0 \times 10^{-5}\ \text{T}\) at any point accessible to the public.

  1. Calculate the minimum horizontal distance from the cable at which members of the public should be allowed.   (2 marks)
  1. The technician decides to install a second identical cable 4.0 m away from the first, also carrying 60 A upward. Determine whether this installation meets the safety requirements at the midpoint between the cables.   (3 marks)
Show Answers Only

a.   \(0.6\ \text{m}\)

b.   The magnetic field around the wire circulates according to the right-hand rule:

  • At the midpoint between the wires, both points are equally distant (2.0 m from each wire).
  • Since the currents are equal in magnitude and direction (both upward), the magnetic fields they produce at the midpoint are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction.
  • Because the magnetic fields are equal and opposite, they completely cancel each other out at the midpoint and will be below the safety requirements of \(2 \times 10^{-5}\ \text{T}\).
Show Worked Solution

a.   The magnetic field strength around a wire is given by  \(B = \dfrac{\mu_0I}{2\pi r}\).

\(\therefore r = \dfrac{\mu_0 I}{2\pi B} = \dfrac{4\pi \times 10^{-7} \times 60}{2\pi \times 2 \times 10^{-5}} = 0.6\ \text{m}\).
 

b.   The magnetic field around the wire circulates according to the right-hand rule:

  • At the midpoint between the wires, both points are equally distant (2.0 m from each wire).
  • Since the currents are equal in magnitude and direction (both upward), the magnetic fields they produce at the midpoint are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction.
  • Because the magnetic fields are equal and opposite, they completely cancel each other out at the midpoint and will be below the safety requirements of \(2 \times 10^{-5}\ \text{T}\).

v1 Measurement, STD2 M1 2016 HSC 1 MC

What is  0.04967  correct to two significant figures?

  1. 0.049
  2. 0.050
  3. 0.0496
  4. 0.0497
Show Answers Only

`B`

Show Worked Solution

`text(We are rounding 0.04967 to 2 significant figures.)`

• `text(First 2 significant digits: 4 and 9)`

• `text(Next digit is 6 → round **up**)`

• `text(0.04967 rounds to 0.050 (2 sig. fig.))`

`=> B`

PHYSICS, M4 EQ-Bank 5 MC

Two parallel vertical wires, each carrying current \(I\) in opposite directions, are separated by distance \(d\). At the midpoint between the wires, the net magnetic field is:

  1. Zero
  2. \(\dfrac{2\mu_0 I}{\pi d}\) directed horizontally
  3. \(\dfrac{\mu_0 I}{\pi d}\) directed horizontally
  4. \(\dfrac{\mu_0 I}{2\pi d}\) directed horizontally
Show Answers Only

\(B\)

Show Worked Solution
  • The magnetic field strength around a current carrying wire is  \(B = \dfrac{\mu_0 I}{2\pi r}\)
  • The distance halfway between the wires will be \(\dfrac{d}{2}\). Hence the magnetic field strength of each wire is:
  •    \(B = \dfrac{\mu_0 I}{2\pi \times \frac{d}{2}} = \dfrac{\mu_0 I}{\pi d}\).
  • Since currents are in opposite directions, fields add at midpoint:
  •    \(B_{\text{net}} = B_1 + B_2 = 2B = \dfrac{2\mu_0 I}{\pi d} \).

\(\Rightarrow B\)

PHYSICS, M4 EQ-Bank 8

A student is investigating the magnetic field produced by a solenoid. The solenoid consists of tightly wound loops of wire carrying a current \(I\). A small piece of soft unmagnetised iron is placed inside the solenoid, and a bar magnet is placed outside the solenoid near one end.

  1. Describe the effect of placing the soft iron inside the solenoid on the magnetic field, and explain this effect in terms of ferromagnetic behaviour.   (3 marks)
  1. Compare and contrast the magnetic field produced by a solenoid with the magnetic field produced by a bar magnet. Explain two similarities and two differences.   (4 marks)
Show Answers Only

a.    Effect of placing a soft iron core inside a solenoid:

  • The strength and concentration of the magnetic field within the solenoid increases significantly.
  • This occurs because soft iron is a ferromagnetic material with a high magnetic permeability, meaning it allows magnetic field lines to pass through it more easily than air.
  • Ferromagnetic materials are made up of regions called magnetic domains. In an unmagnetised state, these domains are randomly oriented, so their individual magnetic fields cancel out.
  • However, when a soft iron core is placed inside the solenoid, the external magnetic field produced by the current causes the domains to align with the field, creating a net magnetic field that reinforces the original one.
  • Because soft iron is easily magnetised and demagnetised, it is ideal for use in electromagnets, where a strong, controllable, and reversible magnetic field is needed.

b.    Similarities:

  • Field Pattern: Both produce magnetic fields with a similar dipole shape — field lines emerge from the north pole, curve around, and enter at the south pole, forming closed loops. Internally, the field lines run from south to north, creating a uniform field inside both the solenoid and the bar magnet.
  • Effect on Magnetic Materials: Both fields can attract ferromagnetic materials (like iron) and influence their magnetic domains. A compass needle or small magnetic object placed near either field will align with the field lines.

Differences:

  • Source of the Magnetic Field: A bar magnet’s field is generated by the alignment of permanent magnetic domains in the material. In contrast, a solenoid’s field is produced by electric current flowing through the wire coils, and can be turned on or off.
  • Controllability: The magnetic field of a solenoid is adjustable, it can be increased by raising the current or number of turns and its direction reversed by changing current direction. A bar magnet’s field is fixed in strength and polarity unless the material is physically altered or demagnetised.
Show Worked Solution

a.    Effect of placing a soft iron core inside a solenoid:

  • The strength and concentration of the magnetic field within the solenoid increases significantly.
  • This occurs because soft iron is a ferromagnetic material with a high magnetic permeability, meaning it allows magnetic field lines to pass through it more easily than air.
  • Ferromagnetic materials are made up of regions called magnetic domains. In an unmagnetised state, these domains are randomly oriented, so their individual magnetic fields cancel out.
  • However, when a soft iron core is placed inside the solenoid, the external magnetic field produced by the current causes the domains to align with the field, creating a net magnetic field that reinforces the original one.
  • Because soft iron is easily magnetised and demagnetised, it is ideal for use in electromagnets, where a strong, controllable, and reversible magnetic field is needed.

b.    Similarities:

  • Field Pattern: Both produce magnetic fields with a similar dipole shape — field lines emerge from the north pole, curve around, and enter at the south pole, forming closed loops. Internally, the field lines run from south to north, creating a uniform field inside both the solenoid and the bar magnet.
  • Effect on Magnetic Materials: Both fields can attract ferromagnetic materials (like iron) and influence their magnetic domains. A compass needle or small magnetic object placed near either field will align with the field lines.

Differences:

  • Source of the Magnetic Field: A bar magnet’s field is generated by the alignment of permanent magnetic domains in the material. In contrast, a solenoid’s field is produced by electric current flowing through the wire coils, and can be turned on or off.
  • Controllability: The magnetic field of a solenoid is adjustable, it can be increased by raising the current or number of turns and its direction reversed by changing current direction. A bar magnet’s field is fixed in strength and polarity unless the material is physically altered or demagnetised.

PHYSICS, M4 EQ-Bank 3 MC

A current \(I\) flows through a solenoid with \(N\) turns and length \(L\). A student wants to increase the magnetic field near the centre of the solenoid to three times its original strength.

Which combination of changes would achieve this?

\begin{align*}
\begin{array}{l}
\rule{0pt}{2.5ex} \ \rule[-1ex]{0pt}{0pt}& \\
\rule{0pt}{2.5ex}\textbf{A.}\rule[-1ex]{0pt}{0pt}\\
\rule{0pt}{2.5ex}\textbf{B.}\rule[-1ex]{0pt}{0pt}\\
\rule{0pt}{2.5ex}\textbf{C.}\rule[-1ex]{0pt}{0pt}\\
\rule{0pt}{2.5ex}\textbf{D.}\rule[-1ex]{0pt}{0pt}\\
\end{array}
\begin{array}{|c|c|}
\hline
\rule{0pt}{2.5ex}\text{Change to}\ I\rule[-1ex]{0pt}{0pt}& \text{Change to}\ N\rule[-1ex]{0pt}{0pt}& \text{Change to}\ L \\
\hline
\rule{0pt}{2.5ex}\text{no change}\rule[-1ex]{0pt}{0pt}&\text{no change}\rule[-1ex]{0pt}{0pt}&\text{triple} \\
\hline
\rule{0pt}{2.5ex}\text{triple}\rule[-1ex]{0pt}{0pt}& \text{triple}\rule[-1ex]{0pt}{0pt}&\text{no change} \\
\hline
\rule{0pt}{2.5ex}\text{no change}\rule[-1ex]{0pt}{0pt}& \text{triple}\rule[-1ex]{0pt}{0pt}&\text{triple} \\
\hline
\rule{0pt}{2.5ex}\text{triple}\rule[-1ex]{0pt}{0pt}& \text{triple}\rule[-1ex]{0pt}{0pt}&\text{triple} \\
\hline
\end{array}
\end{align*}

Show Answers Only

\(D\)

Show Worked Solution

The strength of a magnetic field is given by \(B= \dfrac{\mu_0 NI}{L}\)

Option \(A\): \(=\dfrac{\mu_0 \times N\times I}{3L} = \dfrac{B}{3}\)

Option \(B\): \(=\dfrac{\mu_0 \times 3N \times 3I}{L} = 9B\)

Option \(C\): \(=\dfrac{\mu_0 \times 3N \times I}{3L} = B\)

Option \(D\): \(=\dfrac{\mu_0 \times 3N \times 3I}{3L} = \dfrac{9B}{3} = 3B\)

\(\Rightarrow D\)

v1 Measurement, STD2 M1 2015 HSC 1 MC

The distance from Earth to the Moon is approximately 384 400 km.

What is this distance in standard form correct to two significant figures?

  1. `3.84 × 10^5\ \text{km}`
  2. `3.8 × 10^5\ \text{km}`
  3. `3.9 × 10^5\ \text{km}`
  4. `3.84 × 10^6\ \text{km}`
Show Answers Only

`C`

Show Worked Solution

`384\ 400`

`= 3.844 × 10^5`

`\text(Rounded to 2 significant figures)  →  3.9 × 10^5\ \text{km}`

 
`⇒ C`

PHYSICS, M4 EQ-Bank 6

Consider the diagram below:
 

  1. A straight, vertical wire carries a steady current. Explain how you would determine the direction of the magnetic field around the wire and state the direction.   (2 marks)
  1. The distance from the wire to point \(\text{P}\) is 80 mm, and the current flowing through the wire is 8 A. Calculate the magnitude of the magnetic field at point \(\text{P}\).   (2 marks)
  1. Describe how ferromagnetic materials can become strongly magnetised and explain the underlying reason for this behaviour.   (3 marks)
Show Answers Only

a.    Using the right-hand rule:

  • Thumb goes in the direction of the current (out of the page)
  • Fingers curl in the direction of the magnetic field.
  • Hence the direction of the field is anticlockwise.

b.    \(2.0 \times 10^{-5}\ \text{T}\)
 

c.   Ferromagnetic materials (like iron, cobalt, nickel) contain magnetic domains.

  • These domains are regions where atomic magnetic moments are aligned.
  • When placed in a magnetic field, the individual domains align with the field and no longer cancel each other out, causing strong magnetisation.
  • Even after the external field is removed, alignment may persist, making them useful for permanent magnets.
Show Worked Solution

a.    Using the right-hand rule:

  • Thumb goes in the direction of the current (out of the page)
  • Fingers curl in the direction of the magnetic field.
  • Hence the direction of the field is anticlockwise.
     
b.     \(B\) \(=\dfrac{\mu_0I}{2\pi r}\)
    \(=\dfrac{4\pi \times 10^{-7} \times 8}{2 \pi \times 80 \times 10^{-3}} =2.0 \times 10^{-5}\ \text{T}\) 

 

c.   Ferromagnetic materials (like iron, cobalt, nickel) contain magnetic domains.

  • These domains are regions where atomic magnetic moments are aligned.
  • When placed in a magnetic field, the individual domains align with the field and no longer cancel each other out, causing strong magnetisation.
  • Even after the external field is removed, alignment may persist, making them useful for permanent magnets.

PHYSICS, M4 EQ-Bank 10

A camping lantern consists of four smaller light bulbs, each of which can be modelled as an ohmic resistor. The lantern is powered by a 9 V battery, as shown in the circuit diagram.
 

  1. Calculate the current measured by the ammeter in the circuit.   (3 marks)
  1. Determine the amount of electrical energy used by the lantern over a period of 2 hours.   (2 marks)
Show Answers Only

a.    \(3.6\ \text{A}\)

b.    \(233\,280\ \text{J}\)

Show Worked Solution

a.    Combining the resistors in series:

\(R_{\text{series}} = 5 + 5 = 10\ \Omega\).
 

Combing the resistors in parallel:

\(\dfrac{1}{R_T}\) \(=\dfrac{1}{10} + \dfrac{1}{10} + \dfrac{1}{5} = \dfrac{2}{5}\)  
\(R_T\) \(=2.5\ \Omega\)  

 
The current through circuit can be calculated through Ohm’s law:

\(I_{\text{circuit}} = \dfrac{V_{\text{circuit}}}{R_T} = \dfrac{9}{2.5} = 3.6\ \text{A}\).
 

b.    \(P = IV = 3.6 \times 9 = 32.4\ \text{W}\)

\(E = P\Delta t = 32.4 \times (2 \times 60 \times 60) = 233\,280\ \text{J}\)

PHYSICS, M4 EQ-Bank 9

Jordan is investigating how the resistance of an ohmic resistance wire changes with its length. They have set up a circuit and have access to a voltmeter, ammeter, and a ruler.
 

Explain how Jordan should collect the necessary data for this experiment.   (5 marks)

Show Answers Only
  • v
Show Worked Solution
  • To begin the investigation, Jordan should use a ruler to accurately measure different lengths of the resistance wire. For each selected length, they should connect the wire into the circuit and ensure the power supply remains at a constant voltage.
  • Jordan should then use an ammeter in series to record the current flowing through the circuit and place a voltmeter in parallel across the length of wire being tested to measure the potential difference.
  • Using the formula  \(R=\dfrac{V}{I}\), they can calculate the resistance for each length tested. This process should be repeated for several different lengths of wire.
  • To analyse the results, Jordan should plot a graph of resistance versus length. The shape and trend of the graph will show how resistance depends on the length of the wire.
  • Throughout the experiment, Jordan should ensure that other variables such as the wire’s material, thickness (cross-sectional area), and temperature remain constant to maintain a fair test.

PHYSICS, M4 EQ-Bank 8

A battery powers a circuit containing three identical light bulbs: \(\text{A}\), \(\text{B}\), and \(\text{C}\). Refer to the diagram.
 

Predict and explain the effect on the brightness of bulbs \(\text{A}\) and \(\text{B}\) when the switch is closed. Support your answer using appropriate physics concepts.   (4 marks)

Show Answers Only

Given brightness is directly related to the power dissipated in each bulb:

  • When the switch is closed, the circuit configuration changes — bulbs B and C become a parallel branch. This decreases the overall resistance of the circuit, which causes the total current from the battery to increase.
  • According to the power formula  \(P= I^2R\), bulb A, which is still in series with the rest of the circuit, now receives a greater current and increases in brightness.
  • For bulb B, once the switch is closed, it shares current with bulb C in a parallel arrangement. Since each of these two bulbs (B and C) has half the current that B previously received on its own (before the switch was closed), the current through bulb B decreases.
  • Consequently, the power dissipated in B decreases, and it becomes dimmer.
Show Worked Solution

Given brightness is directly related to the power dissipated in each bulb:

  • When the switch is closed, the circuit configuration changes — bulbs B and C become a parallel branch. This decreases the overall resistance of the circuit, which causes the total current from the battery to increase.
  • According to the power formula  \(P= I^2R\), bulb A, which is still in series with the rest of the circuit, now receives a greater current and increases in brightness.
  • For bulb B, once the switch is closed, it shares current with bulb C in a parallel arrangement. Since each of these two bulbs (B and C) has half the current that B previously received on its own (before the switch was closed), the current through bulb B decreases.
  • Consequently, the power dissipated in B decreases, and it becomes dimmer.

PHYSICS, M4 EQ-Bank 5

A circuit contains two switches, S\(_1\) and S\(_2\). The configuration of the circuit changes depending on which of the switches are open.
 

  1. S\(_1\) is closed and S\(_2\) is open. What current would the ammeter display, assuming ideal conditions?   (2 marks)
  1. The switch S\(_1\) is open, and S\(_2\) is closed. What is the equivalent resistance of the circuit in this configuration?  (2 marks)
  1. Both S\(_1\) and S\(_2\) are now closed. Calculate the power dissipated by the \(2\ \Omega\) resistor under this condition.  (2 marks)
Show Answers Only

a.    \(2.4\ \text{A}\)

b.    \(9.43\ \Omega\)

c.    \(288\ \text{W}\)

Show Worked Solution

a.    When S\(_1\) is closed and S\(_2\) is open:

  • The circuit becomes a parallel circuit where the bottom branch contains both the \(2\ \Omega\) and \(8\ \Omega\) resistor. 
  • The voltage through each arm of the parallel circuit is equal to the total voltage which is equal to \(24\ \text{V}\).
  • Therefore, the reading on the ammeter  \(I = \dfrac{V}{R} = \dfrac{24}{10} = 2.4\ \text{A}\)
     

b.    When the switch S\(_1\) is open, and S\(_2\) is closed:

  • The resistance in the parallel part of the circuit \((5\ \Omega\) and \(2\ \Omega)\) resistors is calculated by:
\(\dfrac{1}{R}\) \(=\dfrac{1}{5} + \dfrac{1}{2} = \dfrac{7}{10}\)  
\(R\) \(=\dfrac{10}{7}\ \Omega\)  

 
Total resistance through the circuit \(= \dfrac{10}{7} + 8 = 9.43\ \Omega\).
 

c.    When both S\(_1\) and S\(_2\) are closed:

  • The system acts as a parallel circuit through the \(5\ \Omega\) and \(2\ \Omega\) resistors and then all current will pass through the switch as it has no resistance and no current will pass through the \(8\ \Omega\) resistor.
  • Therefore the voltage drop over the \(2\ \Omega\) resistor will be \(24\ \text{V}\)
  • By combining  \(P= IV\)  and  \(V=IR\):
  •    \(P = \dfrac{V^2}{R} = \dfrac{24^2}{2} = 288\ \text{W}\)

PHYSICS, M4 EQ-Bank 4

A student investigates the relationship between the current through a resistor and the potential difference across it.

They collect the following data:

\begin{array} {|c|c|c|}
\hline \text{Voltage (V)} & \text{Current (A)} \\
\hline 0.0 & 0.00 \\
\hline 1.0 & 0.19  \\
\hline 2.0& 0.41 \\
\hline 3.0 & 0.61 \\
\hline 4.0 & 0.82  \\
\hline 5.0& 0.98 \\
\hline \end{array}

  1. Plot a graph of Voltage \(\text{(V)}\) on the \(y\)-axis against Current \(\text{(A)}\) on the \(x\)-axis using the data above.
  2. Label your axes clearly and draw the best-fit straight line.   (3 marks)
     
  1. Use your graph to calculate the resistance of the resistor. Show your working and include the correct units.   (2 marks)
Show Answers Only

a.    
     

b.    \(5\ \Omega\)

Show Worked Solution

a. and b.    
  
        

  • By choosing two points on the graph we can find the gradient by calculating the rise over the run.
  •    \(m = \dfrac{\Delta V}{\Delta I} = \dfrac{4-1}{0.8-0.2} = 5\).
  • Using  \(V = IR\ \ \Rightarrow\ \ R = \dfrac{V}{I}\), we can see the the gradient of the graph is equal to the value of the resistor.
  • Resistance \(=5\ \Omega\).

v1 Measurement, STD2 M1 2022 HSC 34

A composite solid is shown. The top section is a hemisphere with a diameter of 6 cm. The bottom section is a cylinder with a height of 3 cm and a diameter of 4 cm
 

Find the total volume of the composite solid in cm³, correct to 1 decimal place.  (4 marks)

Show Answers Only

`94.2 \ text{cm}^3`

Show Worked Solution
`text{Volume of Hemisphere}` `=2/3 pi r^3`  
  `=2/3 pi xx 3^3`  
  `=56.54\ text{cm}^3`  

 

`text{Volume of Cylinder}` `=pi r^2 h`  
  `=pi (2^2) xx 3`  
  `=37.69\ text{cm}^3`  

 

`text{Total Volume}` `=56.54+37.69`
  `=94.23`
  `=94.2 \ text{cm}^3`

v1 Measurement, STD2 M1 2014 HSC 27c

A swimming pool is in the shape of a rectangle with a semicircle at each end, as shown.

The pool is 7000 mm long, 4000 mm wide, and has a depth of 2100 mm.  
  

How much water is needed to fill the pool, to the nearest litre?   (4 marks) 

Show Answers Only

`51 \ 589 \ text(L)`

Show Worked Solution

`V = Ah` 

♦ Mean mark 41%
STRATEGY: Adjusting measurements to metres makes the final conversion to litres simple.

`text(Finding Area of base)`

`text(Semi-circles have radius 2000 mm) = 2 \ text(m)`

`:.\ text(Area of 2 semicircles)`

`=2 xx 1/2 xx pi r^2`

`= pi xx 2^2`

`= 12.56 \ text(m)^2`
 

`text(Area of rectangle)`

`= l xx b`

`= (7-2 xx 2) xx 4`

`= 12\ text(m)^2`

 

`:.\ text(Volume)` `= Ah`
  `= (12.56… + 12) xx 2.1`
  `= 51.589…\ text(m)^3`
  `= 51 \ 589 \ text(L)\ \ text{(using 1m³} = 1000\ text{L)}`
   

PHYSICS, M4 EQ-Bank 6 MC

An electric railway train delivers a maximum mechanical output power of 3.6 MW. The train receives electrical energy from overhead wires at a voltage of 18 kV. The train operates with an overall efficiency of 75%, meaning 75% of the electrical power input is converted into mechanical power.

What is the electric current supplied by the overhead wires when the train is running at full mechanical output?

  1. 180 A
  2. 220 A
  3. 267 A
  4. 300 A
Show Answers Only

\(C\)

Show Worked Solution
  • Maximum mechanical output power = \(3.6\ \text{MW}\)
  • Maximum electrical power supplied = \(\dfrac{3.6}{0.75} = 4.8\ \text{MW}\)
  • \(I = \dfrac{P}{V} = \dfrac{4.8 \times 10^6}{18 \times 10^3} = 267\ \text{A}\)

\(\Rightarrow C\)

PHYSICS, M4 EQ-Bank 2

The circuit shown below contains three identical light bulbs: \(\text{X}\), \(\text{Y}\), and \(\text{Z}\), connected to a DC power supply and a switch \(\text{S}\).

  1. When switch \(\text{S}\) is open, compare the brightness of bulbs \(\text{X}\), \(\text{Y}\), and \(\text{Z}\).   (2 marks)
  1. When switch \(\text{S}\) is closed, compare the brightness of bulbs \(\text{X}\), \(\text{Y}\), and \(\text{Z}\). Be quantitative in your reasoning.   (3 marks)
Show Answers Only

a.   When the switch is open:

  • \(\text{X}\) and \(\text{Y}\) are in series, have equal resistance and the current through each is the same.
  • Using  \(P= I^2R\), the power dissipated in each light bulb is the same. Therefore, \(\text{X}\) and \(\text{Y}\) have the same brightness.
  • \(\text{Z}\) is not in the circuit (as the switch \(\text{S}\) is open), so there is no current through \(\text{Z}\). Therefore, light bulb \(\text{Z}\) will not light up.
     

b.    When the switch is closed:

  • Since \(\text{Y}\) and \(\text{Z}\) are in parallel, they each get the same voltage. Given they have equal resistance, the current through each is equal and they will have equal brightness.
  • The voltage drop across bulb \(\text{X}\) will be the same as the voltage drop across \(\text{Y}\) and \(\text{Z}\) combined. Since \(\text{Y}\) and \(\text{Z}\) are connected in parallel, the voltage drop across each individual bulb will be half of the voltage drop across \(\text{X}\).
  • Using \(P= \dfrac{V^2}{R}\), the power dissipated in \(\text{X}\) will be four times larger than the power dissipated in either \(\text{Y}\) or \(\text{Z}\).
  • Therefore the brightness in \(\text{X}\) will be four times that of \(\text{Y}\) or \(\text{Z}\).
Show Worked Solution

a.   When the switch is open:

  • \(\text{X}\) and \(\text{Y}\) are in series, have equal resistance and the current through each is the same.
  • Using  \(P= I^2R\), the power dissipated in each light bulb is the same. Therefore, \(\text{X}\) and \(\text{Y}\) have the same brightness.
  • \(\text{Z}\) is not in the circuit (as the switch \(\text{S}\) is open), so there is no current through \(\text{Z}\). Therefore, light bulb \(\text{Z}\) will not light up.
     

b.    When the switch is closed:

  • Since \(\text{Y}\) and \(\text{Z}\) are in parallel, they each get the same voltage. Given they have equal resistance, the current through each is equal and they will have equal brightness.
  • The voltage drop across bulb \(\text{X}\) will be the same as the voltage drop across \(\text{Y}\) and \(\text{Z}\) combined. Since \(\text{Y}\) and \(\text{Z}\) are connected in parallel, the voltage drop across each individual bulb will be half of the voltage drop across \(\text{X}\).
  • Using \(P= \dfrac{V^2}{R}\), the power dissipated in \(\text{X}\) will be four times larger than the power dissipated in either \(\text{Y}\) or \(\text{Z}\).
  • Therefore the brightness in \(\text{X}\) will be four times that of \(\text{Y}\) or \(\text{Z}\).

v1 Measurement, STD2 M1 2010 HSC 17 MC

During a heavy storm, 2.4 hectares of farmland received rainfall to a depth of 12 cm.

How many kilolitres of rainwater fell on the farmland? (1 hectare = 10 000 m²)

  1. 2.88 kL
  2. 2880 kL
  3. 288 000 kL
  4. 2 880 000 kL
Show Answers Only

`B`

Show Worked Solution
♦♦ Mean mark 36%
NOTE: The unit conversion 1 m³ = 1000 L is contained in the Formulae and Data sheet given out in the exam.
`text(Area of farmland)` `=2.4xx10\ 000`
  `=24\ 000\ text(m²)`
`text(Volume)` `=Ah`
  `=24\ 000xx0.12`
  `=2880\ text(m³)`

 

`text{1 m³}` `=1000\ text(L)=1\ text(kL)`
`:.\ text(Volume)` `=2880\ text(kL)`

`=>B`

v1 Measurement, STD2 M1 2018 HSC 30a

A cylindrical oil tank has a height of 7 metres and a capacity of 1.5 megalitres.
 

What is the diameter of the oil tank? Give your answer in metres, correct to two decimal places.  (3 marks)

Show Answers Only

`16.50\ text{m}`

Show Worked Solution

`text{Converting megalitres to m³  (using 1 m³ = 1000 L):}`

♦ Mean mark 48%.

`1.5\ text(ML)` `= (1.5 xx 10^6)/(10^3)`
  `= 1.5 xx 10^3\ text(m)^3`
  `= 1500\ text(m)^3`

 

`V` `= pir^2h`
`1500` `= pi xx r^2 xx 7`
`r^2` `= 1500/(pi xx 7)`
`sqrt(r^2)` `= sqrt(68.21)`
  `= 8.26\ text{m}`

 

`text{Diameter}` `=2r`  
  `=2xx8.26 \ text{m}`  
  `=16.52\ text{m}`  

 

v1 Measurement, STD2 M1 2016 HSC 30a

The area of a school roof is 45 m². All rain that falls on the roof flows into a storage tank.

How many litres of water are collected in the tank when 25 mm of rain falls?   (2 marks)

Show Answers Only

`1125\ \text{L}`

Show Worked Solution
`text{Volume}` `= A × h`
  `= 45 × (25 ÷ 1000)`
  `= 1.125\ \text{m}^3`
  `= 1125\ \text{L}`

PHYSICS, M4 EQ-Bank 5 MC

A student sets up an electric circuit with a power supply providing a total potential difference of 12 V. A 60 \(\Omega\) resistor is connected between terminals \(\text{X}\) and \(\text{Y}\), causing a voltage drop of 9 V across it, along with a mystery component between terminals \(\text{P}\) and \(\text{Q}\), which is part of the same circuit.

 

Which of the following components could be connected between \(\text{P}\) and \(\text{Q}\)?
 

 

Show Answers Only

\(D\)

Show Worked Solution
  • If the voltage drop between terminals \(\text{X}\) and \(\text{Y}\) was 9 V we can use  \(V=IR\)  to work out the current in the circuit.
  •    \(I = \dfrac{V}{R} = \dfrac{9}{60} = 0.15\ \text{A}\).
  • As the voltage drop across the mystery component must be 3 V, the total resistance of the mystery component must be:
  •    \(R = \dfrac{V}{I} = \dfrac{3}{0.15} = 20\ \Omega\)

Consider each option:

\(A\): \(25\ \Omega\ \cross\)

\(B\): \(18\ \Omega\ \cross\)

\(C\): As the resistor is connected in parallel, it will be irrelevant to the circuit. Hence \(C\) is equivalent to \(0\ \Omega\ \cross\)

\(D\): \(\dfrac{1}{R_T} = \dfrac{1}{40} + \dfrac{1}{40} = \dfrac{1}{20}\ \ \Rightarrow\ \ R_T = 20\ \Omega\)

\(\Rightarrow D\)

Calculus, 2ADV C4 EQ-Bank 2

  1. Differentiate  \(y=x^2\, \log _e x\).   (2 marks)

  2. Hence, or otherwise, find \(\displaystyle \int_1^e x\, \log _e x\, d x\).   (  marks)

Show Answers Only

a.   \(\dfrac{d y}{d x} =x+2 x\, \log _e x\)

b.   \(\dfrac{e^2}{4}+\dfrac{1}{4}\)

Show Worked Solution

a.  \(y=x^2\, \log _e x\)

\(\dfrac{d y}{d x}\) \(=x^2 \cdot \dfrac{1}{x}+2 x\, \log _e x\)
  \(=x+2 x\, \log _e x\)

 
b.     \(\text{Using part a.}\)

\(\displaystyle \int x+2 x\, \log _e x\, d x\) \(=x^2\, \log _e x+c\)  
\(\displaystyle \int x\, d x+2 \int x\, \log _e x\, d x\) \(=x^2\, \log _e x+c\)  
\(\displaystyle 2 \int_1^e x\, \log _e x\, d x\) \(=\left[x^2\, \log _e x\right]_1^e-\displaystyle \int_1^e x\, d x\)
\(\displaystyle \int_1^e x\, \log _e x\, d x\) \(=\dfrac{1}{2}\left[\left(e^2 \cdot 1\right)-0\right]-\dfrac{1}{2}\left[\dfrac{x^2}{2}\right]_1^e\)
  \(=\dfrac{e^2}{2}-\left(\dfrac{e^2}{4}-\dfrac{1}{4}\right)\)
  \(=\dfrac{e^2}{4}+\dfrac{1}{4}\)

Calculus, 2ADV C4 EQ-Bank 3

  1. Differentiate  \(y=x\, \sin (2 x)\).   (2 marks)

  2. Hence, or otherwise, find \(\displaystyle \int x\, \cos (2 x)\, d x\).  (2 marks)

Show Answers Only

a.  \(\dfrac{d y}{d x}=\sin (2 x)+2 x\, \cos (2 x)\)

b.   \(\dfrac{1}{2} x\, \sin (2 x)+\dfrac{1}{4} \cos (2 x)+c\)

Show Worked Solution

a.     \(y=x\, \sin (2 x)\)

\(\dfrac{d y}{d x}=\sin (2 x)+2 x\, \cos (2 x)\)
 

b.    \(\text {Using part a.}\)

\(\displaystyle\int \sin (2 x)+2 x\, \cos (2 x)\, d x=x\, \sin (2 x)+c\)

\(\displaystyle\int \sin (2 x)\, d x+2 \int x\, \cos (2 x)\, d x=x\, \sin (2 x)+c\)

\(2 \displaystyle \int x\, \cos (2 x)\, d x\) \(=x\, \sin (2 x)-\displaystyle \int \sin (2 x)\, d x+c\)
  \(=x\, \sin (2 x)+\dfrac{1}{2} \cos (2 x)+c\)
\(\displaystyle\int x\, \cos (2 x)\, d x\) \(=\dfrac{1}{2} x\, \sin (2 x)+\dfrac{1}{4} \cos (2 x)+c\)

Calculus, 2ADV C4 EQ-Bank 1

  1. Differentiate  \(y=x e^x\).   (2 marks)

  2. Hence, or otherwise, find \(\displaystyle \int_1^e x e^x d x\).   (2 marks)
Show Answers Only

a.  \(\dfrac{d y}{d x}=e^x+x e^x\)

b.  \(e^e(e-1)\)

Show Worked Solution

a.    \(y=x e^x\)

\(\dfrac{d y}{d x}=e^x+x e^x\)
 

b.    \(\text{Using part a.}\)

\(\displaystyle\int e^x+x e^x\, d x\) \(=x e^x+c\)
\(\displaystyle\int_1^e e^x\, d x+\int_1^e x e^x\, d x\) \(=\left[x e^x\right]_1^e\)
\(\displaystyle\int_1^e x e^x\, d x\) \(=\left[x e^x\right]_1^e-\left[e^x\right]_1^e\)
  \(=\left[e \cdot e^e-e\right]-\left[e^e-e\right]\)
  \(=e \cdot e^e-e^e\)
  \(=e^e(e-1)\)

PHYSICS, M4 EQ-Bank 4 MC

Two non-conducting spheres, \(\text{P}\) and \(\text{Q}\), are suspended from a horizontal insulating bar by identical length strings. Each sphere carries an electric charge and the strings are shown to be at different angles, as illustrated below. Assume the system is in static equilibrium and the diagram is to scale.
 

Which of the following pairs of statements best explains the behaviour of the system?

\begin{array} {|l|l|}
\hline
\rule{0pt}{2.5ex} \textbf{A} \rule[-1ex]{0pt}{0pt} & \text{• Sphere P has a greater charge than sphere Q.} \\ & \text{• The force of tension in P’s string is smaller than that in Q’s.} \\
\hline
\rule{0pt}{2.5ex} \textbf{B} \rule[-1ex]{0pt}{0pt} & \text{• The horizontal (electrostatic) force on P is equal in magnitude and opposite in direction to that on Q.} \\ & \text{• Sphere P is more massive than sphere Q.} \\
\hline
\rule{0pt}{2.5ex} \textbf{C} \rule[-1ex]{0pt}{0pt} & \text{• The net force acting on Q is greater than that on P.} \\ & \text{• The angle of Q's string is larger because it carries more charge.} \\
\hline
\rule{0pt}{2.5ex} \textbf{D} \rule[-1ex]{0pt}{0pt} & \text{• The larger angle on P's string means it experiences a stronger repulsive force.} \\ & \text{• This implies that the charge on P and Q are of opposite sign.} \\
\hline
\end{array}

Show Answers Only

\(B\)

Show Worked Solution
  • The electrostatic force between two charges is governed by Coulomb’s Law. Even if the spheres differ in mass or charge, the force each exerts on the other is always equal in magnitude and opposite in direction.
  • The strings are of equal length, but the angles are different, meaning one sphere is deflected more from the vertical. Both spheres are experiencing the same horizontal electrostatic force (magnitude), but if their angles differ, the vertical (gravitational) forces must be different to maintain equilibrium. This implies a difference in mass.
  • The greater the mass, the more vertical the string needs to be to balance the same horizontal force (smaller angle). So, the sphere with the smaller angle (less deflection) has a greater gravitational force pulling it down — hence, greater mass. Thus, \(\text{P}\) is more massive than \(\text{Q}\).

\(\Rightarrow B\)

PHYSICS, M4 EQ-Bank 4

Two small identical spheres \(\text{A}\) and \(\text{B}\) are suspended from a common point \(\text{Q}\) by light, non-conducting threads of equal length. Each sphere is given the same positive charge, and they repel each other, settling into equilibrium as shown.
 

The mass of each sphere is 3.0 g, and at equilibrium the horizontal separation between the spheres is 8.0 cm, while the length of each thread is 25 cm.

Calculate the magnitude of the charge on each sphere.   (4 marks)

Show Answers Only

The magnitude of the charge on each sphere is  \(5.8 \times 10^{-8}\ \text{C}\).

Show Worked Solution
\(\sin\theta\) \(=\dfrac{4}{25}\)  
\(\theta\) \(=\sin^{-1}\left(\dfrac{4}{25}\right) = 9.21^{\circ}\)  

 
The following force diagram can be constructed from the diagram:

As the system is in equilibrium the weight force will be equal to \(T_v\)

\(T_v=mg=3 \times 10^{-3} \times 9.8=0.0294\ \text{N}\)

\(\tan(80.79)\) \(=\dfrac{T_v}{T_h}\)  
\(T_h\) \(=\dfrac{0.0294}{\tan80.79}=0.00477\ \text{N}\)  

 
As the system is in equilibrium, \(T_h = F_E\), therefore \(F_E = 0.00477\ \text{N}\)

\(F\) \(=\dfrac{1}{4 \pi \epsilon_0}\dfrac{q_1q_2}{r^2}\)  
\(0.00477\) \(=\dfrac{1}{4 \pi \epsilon_0}\dfrac{q^2}{0.08^2}\)  
\(q^2\) \(=3.397 \times 10^{-15}\)  
\(q\) \(=5.8 \times 10^{-8}\ \text{C}\)  

v1 Measurement, STD2 M1 2020 HSC 27

The shaded region on the diagram represents a lot. Each grid represents 6 m × 6 m.
 


 

  1. Use two applications of the trapezoidal rule to calculate the approximate area of the lot.   (3 marks)

  2. Should the answer to part (a) be more than, equal to or less than the actual area of the lot? Referring to the diagram above, briefly explain your answer.   (2 marks)

Show Answers Only
  1. `1080 \ text{m}^2`
  2. `text{The estimate will be more than actual area}`
Show Worked Solution

a.     

`h = 4 xx 6 = 24 \ text{m}`

♦ Mean mark 47%.
`text{Area}` `= frac{h}{2} (x_1 + x_2) + frac{h}{2} (x_2 + x_3)`
   `= frac{24}{2} (30 + 18) + frac{24}{2} (18 + 24}`
  `= 576 + 504`
  `= 1080 \ text{m}^2`

 

♦♦ Mean mark 23%.

b.     

`text{The trapezoidal rule captures the shaded area plus the}`

`text{the extra area highlighted above.}`

`therefore \ text{The estimate will be more than actual area}`

PHYSICS, M4 EQ-Bank 3

Two small identical conducting spheres are mounted on insulating stands, 50 cm apart. One sphere carries a charge \((q_1)\) of +0.5 nC, and the other carries a charge \((q_2)\) of −0.2 nC.

  1. Calculate the magnitude and direction of the electrostatic force between the two spheres at this distance. Use Coulomb’s law and clearly state whether the force is attractive or repulsive.   (3 marks)
  1. The spheres are then briefly brought into contact, allowing charge to redistribute equally, and then separated again to a distance of 25 cm. What is the charge on each sphere now?   (1 mark)
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a.    \(3.60 \times 10^{-9}\ \text{N}\) towards each other.

b.    \(0.15\ \text{nC}\)

Show Worked Solution
a.    \(F\) \(=\dfrac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0} \times \dfrac{q_1q_2}{r^2}\)
    \(=\dfrac{1}{4 \pi \times 8.854 \times 10^{-12}} \times \dfrac{0.5 \times 10^{-9} \times 0.2 \times 10^{-9}}{0.5^2}\)
    \(= 3.60 \times 10^{-9}\ \text{N}\ \ \text{towards each other}\)

 
b.    After contact, charges redistribute equally because:

  • Conductors allow free movement of charge.
  • Identical spheres have equal capacity to hold charge.
  • They reach the same electric potential when touched.
  •    \(q_{\text{each}} = \dfrac{q_1q_2}{2} = \dfrac{0.5 +(-0.2)}{2} = 0.15\ \text{nC}\).

v1 Measurement, STD2 M1 2023 HSC 24

The diagram shows the cross-section of a wall across a creek. 
 


 
  1. Use two applications of the trapezoidal rule to estimate the area of the cross-section of the wall.  (2 marks)

  2. The wall has a uniform thickness of 0.9 m. The weight of 1 m³ of concrete is 3.52 tonnes.  
  3. How many tonnes of concrete are in the wall? Give the answer to two significant figures.  (3 marks)

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  1. `21.25\ text{m}^2`
  2. `text{67 tonnes}`
Show Worked Solution

a.    `h=10.0/2=5`

`A` `~~h/2[2+1.5+2(2.5)]`  
  `~~5/2(8.5)`  
  `~~21.25\ text{m}^2`  

 
b.   `V_text{wall}=21.25 xx 0.9=19.13\ text{m}^3`

`text{Mass of concrete}` `=19.13 xx 3.52`  
  `=67.33`  
  `=67\ text{tonnes (2 sig.fig.)}`  
♦ Mean mark (b) 46%.
 

HMS, BM EQ-Bank 986

Explain the immediate physiological responses that occur during anaerobic interval training, including changes to heart rate, lactate levels, and ventilation rate.   (8 marks)

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Sample Answer 

  • Heart rate increases rapidly during anaerobic interval training. The increase occurs because the cardiovascular system must deliver oxygen at maximum capacity.
  • Sprint intervals cause heart rate to rise from resting to near-maximum levels. The increase happens within seconds of starting high-intensity work.
  • The rapid elevation results from immediate metabolic demands exceeding oxygen supply. Therefore, the heart compensates by beating faster to deliver available oxygen.
  • Ventilation rate escalates dramatically during intense intervals. Respiratory adjustments occur because muscles demand more oxygen while producing excess carbon dioxide.
  • Breathing frequency increases substantially with deeper breaths enhancing gas exchange. As a result, more oxygen enters while metabolic waste exits efficiently.
  • The dramatic increase happens due to chemoreceptors detecting rising carbon dioxide levels. Consequently, the respiratory centre drives increased ventilation to maintain blood gas balance.
  • Blood lactate accumulates rapidly during anaerobic intervals. Accumulation happens when energy demands exceed oxygen availability for aerobic metabolism.
  • Lactate rises from minimal resting levels to very high concentrations. The accumulation occurs because glycolytic metabolism produces lactate faster than clearance.
  • Therefore, muscles rely increasingly on anaerobic pathways for ATP production. Such metabolic shifts cause the characteristic burning sensation limiting performance duration.
  • These responses interact to support interval performance. Together they enable brief maximal efforts despite oxygen deficit conditions.
  • Recovery periods between intervals allow partial restoration. Brief rest periods allow repeated high-intensity efforts within a training session.
  • Overall, the coordinated response demonstrates the body’s remarkable capacity to meet extreme demands. Such integration enables anaerobic interval training effectiveness.
Show Worked Solution

Sample Answer 

  • Heart rate increases rapidly during anaerobic interval training. The increase occurs because the cardiovascular system must deliver oxygen at maximum capacity.
  • Sprint intervals cause heart rate to rise from resting to near-maximum levels. The increase happens within seconds of starting high-intensity work.
  • The rapid elevation results from immediate metabolic demands exceeding oxygen supply. Therefore, the heart compensates by beating faster to deliver available oxygen.
  • Ventilation rate escalates dramatically during intense intervals. Respiratory adjustments occur because muscles demand more oxygen while producing excess carbon dioxide.
  • Breathing frequency increases substantially with deeper breaths enhancing gas exchange. As a result, more oxygen enters while metabolic waste exits efficiently.
  • The dramatic increase happens due to chemoreceptors detecting rising carbon dioxide levels. Consequently, the respiratory centre drives increased ventilation to maintain blood gas balance.
  • Blood lactate accumulates rapidly during anaerobic intervals. Accumulation happens when energy demands exceed oxygen availability for aerobic metabolism.
  • Lactate rises from minimal resting levels to very high concentrations. The accumulation occurs because glycolytic metabolism produces lactate faster than clearance.
  • Therefore, muscles rely increasingly on anaerobic pathways for ATP production. Such metabolic shifts cause the characteristic burning sensation limiting performance duration.
  • These responses interact to support interval performance. Together they enable brief maximal efforts despite oxygen deficit conditions.
  • Recovery periods between intervals allow partial restoration. Brief rest periods allow repeated high-intensity efforts within a training session.
  • Overall, the coordinated response demonstrates the body’s remarkable capacity to meet extreme demands. Such integration enables anaerobic interval training effectiveness.