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Aussie Maths & Science Teachers: Save your time with SmarterEd

HMS, BM 2017 HSC 9 MC

What is the nature of the skill required by a dart thrower?

  1. Open, self-paced
  2. Open, externally paced
  3. Closed, externally paced
  4. Closed, self-paced
Show Answers Only

\(D\)

Show Worked Solution
  • D is correct: Dart throwing is closed (predictable environment) and self-paced (performer controls timing).

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Dart throwing occurs in a predictable environment, making it closed.
  • B is incorrect: Environment is predictable (closed) and performer controls timing (self-paced).
  • C is incorrect: Dart thrower controls when to throw, making it self-paced.

HMS, HAG 2017 HSC 8 MC

Which level of government is responsible for the administration of public hospitals?

  1. State
  2. Local
  3. Federal
  4. Regional
Show Answers Only

\(A\)

Show Worked Solution

  • A is correct: State and territory governments are responsible for administering public hospitals.

Other Options:

  • B is incorrect: Local government manages environmental health services, not public hospitals.
  • C is incorrect: Federal government funds Medicare and PBS, not hospital administration.
  • D is incorrect: Regional is not a level of government in Australia’s system.

HMS, BM 2017 HSC 6 MC

A coach tells her squad that a poor performance in the next match will result in individuals not being considered for a representative team.

What type of motivation is this?

  1. Positive and intrinsic
  2. Positive and extrinsic
  3. Negative and intrinsic
  4. Negative and extrinsic
Show Answers Only

\(D\)

Show Worked Solution

  • D is correct: Negative extrinsic motivation uses external punishment threat to motivate behaviour.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Positive intrinsic motivation involves internal satisfaction from participation itself.
  • B is incorrect: Positive extrinsic motivation uses rewards, not punishment threats.
  • C is incorrect: Negative intrinsic motivation involves internal fear, not external consequences.

HMS, HAG 2017 HSC 4 MC

Which set of socioeconomic determinants has the greatest influence on the health inequities experienced by indigenous population groups?

  1. Income and high-density living
  2. Religious and cultural influences
  3. Levels of education and employment
  4. Media access and geographical location
Show Answers Only

\(C\)

Show Worked Solution

  • C is correct: Education and employment levels are key socioeconomic determinants affecting Indigenous health inequities.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: High-density living is not a major determinant for Indigenous populations.
  • B is incorrect: Religious influences are not primary socioeconomic determinants of health inequities.
  • D is incorrect: Media access is not a major socioeconomic determinant of health.

HMS, HAG 2017 HSC 2 MC

Who is responsible for funding the Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme (PBS)?

  1. State government
  2. Local government
  3. Federal government
  4. Private health insurance
Show Answers Only

\(C\)

Show Worked Solution

  • C is correct: PBS is a Commonwealth-funded program administered by the federal government.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: State governments fund public hospitals, not pharmaceutical benefits.
  • B is incorrect: Local governments manage environmental health, not pharmaceutical schemes.
  • D is incorrect: Private health insurance is separate from government pharmaceutical benefits.

HMS, TIP 2017 HSC 1 MC

What type of training involves an activity with intermittent bursts of speed?

  1. Circuit
  2. Fartlek
  3. Flexibility
  4. Continuous
Show Answers Only

\(B\)

Show Worked Solution
  • B is correct: Fartlek training involves varied speed bursts during continuous activity.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Circuit training uses different exercise stations, not speed variations.
  • C is incorrect: Flexibility training focuses on range of motion, not speed.
  • D is incorrect: Continuous training maintains steady pace without speed bursts.

HMS, HIC 2018 HSC 21

Outline, using an example, how ‘building healthy public policy’ has been applied to the prevention of lung cancer.   (3 marks)

Show Answers Only

  • Building healthy public policy is one of the five Ottawa Charter action areas for health promotion.
  • This involves governments creating legislation and regulations that support health.
  • The action area focuses on making healthy choices easier through structural changes.
  • For example, plain packaging laws for cigarettes removed attractive branding and advertising.
  • These policies mandate health warnings covering most of the cigarette packet surface.
  • Government tobacco taxes make cigarettes more expensive, deterring purchase.
  • These policy measures have contributed to declining smoking rates and reduced lung cancer incidence.

Show Worked Solution

  • Building healthy public policy is one of the five Ottawa Charter action areas for health promotion.
  • This involves governments creating legislation and regulations that support health.
  • The action area focuses on making healthy choices easier through structural changes.
  • For example, plain packaging laws for cigarettes removed attractive branding and advertising.
  • These policies mandate health warnings covering most of the cigarette packet surface.
  • Government tobacco taxes make cigarettes more expensive, deterring purchase.
  • These policy measures have contributed to declining smoking rates and reduced lung cancer incidence.

HMS, BM 2018 HSC 20 MC

A coach uses strategic development to enhance a team’s performance.

Strategic development focuses on

  1. encouraging players to be creative.
  2. adopting the opponent's game plan.
  3. allowing players to make spontaneous decisions.
  4. utilising strengths and targeting the opponent's weaknesses.
Show Answers Only

\(D\)

Show Worked Solution

  • D is correct: Strategic development involves analysing team strengths and opponent weaknesses to create game plans.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Creativity is tactical flexibility, not strategic development focus.
  • B is incorrect: Strategic development creates own plans rather than copying opponents.
  • C is incorrect: Strategic development provides structure rather than encouraging spontaneous decisions.

HMS, HAG 2018 HSC 13 MC

A patient is considering the suitability of an alternative health care approach.

Which of the following would best assist the patient to make an informed decision about this alternative approach?

  1. Information provided on websites
  2. Scientific evidence about its success
  3. An advertisement that promotes its safety
  4. The endorsement of a friend who has used it
Show Answers Only

\(B\)

Show Worked Solution

  • B is correct: Scientific evidence provides objective, credible information for informed healthcare decisions.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Websites vary in quality and may contain inaccurate information.
  • C is incorrect: Advertisements are promotional material, not objective evidence.
  • D is incorrect: Friend endorsements are anecdotal, not reliable scientific evidence.

HMS, BM 2018 HSC 11 MC

A softball coach asks a player to throw 20 pitches over the plate. At the end of the session, the coach tells the player how many of the 20 pitches went over the plate.

The coach is providing

  1. subjective appraisal.
  2. concurrent feedback.
  3. knowledge of results.
  4. knowledge of performance.
Show Answers Only

\(C\)

Show Worked Solution

  • C is correct: Knowledge of results provides information about the outcome achieved (successful pitches).

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: This is objective measurement data, not subjective opinion.
  • B is incorrect: Concurrent feedback occurs during performance, not after completion.
  • D is incorrect: Knowledge of performance relates to technique quality, not outcome success.

HMS, HIC 2018 HSC 6 MC

Bike lanes have been established in built-up areas.

Which action area of the Ottawa Charter is this an example of?

  1. Developing personal skills
  2. Reorienting health services
  3. Strengthening community action
  4. Creating supportive environments
Show Answers Only

\(D\)

Show Worked Solution

  • D is correct: Bike lanes create physical infrastructure that supports healthy behaviours and environments.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Developing personal skills involves individual education and skill building.
  • B is incorrect: Reorienting health services involves changing healthcare delivery approaches.
  • C is incorrect: Strengthening community action involves empowering communities to take collective action.

HMS, BM 2018 HSC 3 MC

Which of the following best demonstrates extrinsic motivation?

  1. A swimmer trying to improve his 100-metre freestyle personal best time
  2. A netballer practising goal shooting to win the 'highest goal scorer' trophy
  3. A tennis player working on her serve to achieve a higher percentage of aces
  4. A baseball player focusing on hitting the ball to increase technical efficiency
Show Answers Only

\(B\)

Show Worked Solution

  • B is correct: Practising to win a trophy represents external reward-based extrinsic motivation.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Improving personal best demonstrates internal satisfaction and intrinsic motivation.
  • C is incorrect: Achieving higher percentage shows internal skill improvement and intrinsic motivation.
  • D is incorrect: Technical efficiency improvement represents internal mastery and intrinsic motivation.

HMS, HAG 2018 HSC 2 MC

Which of the following is an effect of a growing and ageing population?

  1. Decreased demand for carers
  2. Increased access to elective surgery
  3. Increased demand for health services
  4. Decreased number of people living with chronic disease
Show Answers Only

\(C\)

Show Worked Solution

  • C is correct: Growing and ageing population increases demand for health services overall.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Ageing population increases demand for carers, not decreases.
  • B is incorrect: Higher demand typically reduces access due to increased waiting times.
  • D is incorrect: Ageing population increases chronic disease prevalence, not decreases.

HMS, HIC 2019 HSC 12 MC

Which of the following is an example of a health promotion strategy which addresses the social justice principle of diversity?

  1. Local councils designing and providing free outdoor exercise facilities
  2. Introducing legislation restricting the use of mobile phones for young drivers
  3. Providing health information in different languages at a community health centre
  4. Reducing the cost of prescription medication for socioeconomically disadvantaged Australians
Show Answers Only

\(C\)

Show Worked Solution

  • C is correct: Different languages address cultural diversity needs in health information access.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Free facilities address equity, not diversity specifically.
  • B is incorrect: Phone restrictions address safety, not diversity needs.
  • D is incorrect: Cost reduction addresses equity for disadvantaged groups, not diversity.

HMS, HAG 2019 HSC 9 MC

Which type of health care service has the highest expenditure by state/territory governments in Australia?

  1. Dental services
  2. Public hospitals
  3. Palliative care hospitals
  4. Pharmaceutical services
Show Answers Only

\(B\)

Show Worked Solution

  • B is correct: Public hospitals receive the largest portion of state/territory health expenditure.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Dental services receive much smaller state government funding.
  • C is incorrect: Palliative care represents a small portion of hospital expenditure.
  • D is incorrect: Pharmaceutical services are primarily federally funded through PBS.

HMS, TIP 2019 HSC 7 MC

In an attempt to manage anxiety when taking a penalty shot, an athlete pays particular attention to the opponent's movements.
Which term describes this strategy?

  1. Focusing
  2. Relaxation
  3. Goal setting
  4. Mental rehearsal
Show Answers Only

\(A\)

Show Worked Solution

  • A is correct: Focusing involves directing attention to specific cues like opponent movements.

Other Options:

  • B is incorrect: Relaxation involves reducing tension, not directing attention.
  • C is incorrect: Goal setting involves establishing targets for achievement.
  • D is incorrect: Mental rehearsal involves visualising performance, not observing opponents.

HMS, HAG 2020 HSC 17 MC

Which of the following best demonstrates a strategy to improve equity of access to medical services for people living in a remote location in Australia?

  1. Providing an interpreter at a medical consultation
  2. Providing medical appointments in the late afternoon
  3. Providing culturally appropriate staff at a medical centre
  4. Providing a telephone or video consultation with a specialist
Show Answers Only

\(D\)

Show Worked Solution
  • D is correct: Telehealth overcomes geographical barriers for remote area access.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Interpreter services address language not geographical barriers.
  • B is incorrect: Appointment timing doesn’t address remote location barriers.
  • C is incorrect: Cultural appropriateness addresses cultural not geographical barriers.

HMS, HAG 2020 HSC 16 MC

Which of the following identifies the health inequities experienced by Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander peoples when compared to non-Indigenous Australians?

  1. Lower life expectancy, higher mortality rate from diabetes, higher incidence of lung cancer
  2. Lower life expectancy, lower morbidity rate from diabetes, higher incidence of breast cancer
  3. Higher infant mortality rate, lower mortality rate from diabetes, higher incidence of lung cancer
  4. Higher infant mortality rate, higher morbidity rate from diabetes, lower rate of hospitalisation due to injury
Show Answers Only

\(A\)

Show Worked Solution
  • A is correct: Aboriginal peoples have lower life expectancy, higher diabetes mortality, higher lung cancer.

Other Options:

  • B is incorrect: Aboriginal peoples have higher not lower diabetes morbidity.
  • C is incorrect: Aboriginal peoples have higher not lower diabetes mortality.
  • D is incorrect: Aboriginal peoples have higher not lower injury hospitalisation rates.

HMS, TIP 2020 HSC 13 MC

An endurance athlete might consider using caffeine supplementation to improve performance because caffeine

  1. relaxes the muscles to improve recovery time.
  2. increases the amount of creatine stored in muscles.
  3. promotes growth, repair and maintenance of muscle tissue.
  4. reduces the perception of fatigue and may promote glycogen sparing.
Show Answers Only

 

Show Worked Solution

 

HMS, BM 2020 HSC 8 MC

An athlete has an awareness of where her body is in space and can perform a range of skills successfully on repeated occasions.

Which pair of characteristics of a skilled performer does this athlete best demonstrate?

  1. Anticipation and ability
  2. Anticipation and consistency
  3. Kinaesthetic sense and ability
  4. Kinaesthetic sense and consistency
Show Answers Only

\(D\)

Show Worked Solution
  • D is correct: Body awareness shows kinaesthetic sense, repeated success shows consistency.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Body awareness is kinaesthetic sense not anticipation.
  • B is incorrect: Body awareness is kinaesthetic sense not anticipation.
  • C is incorrect: Repeated success indicates consistency not just ability.

HMS, TIP 2020 HSC 4 MC

Which recovery strategy would be most effective for an athlete who experiences a significant loss of weight during a competition game?

  1. Cool down
  2. Cryotherapy
  3. Hydration
  4. Hydrotherapy
Show Answers Only

\(C\)

Show Worked Solution
  • C is correct: Weight loss during competition indicates dehydration requiring fluid replacement.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Cool down helps muscle recovery not weight loss.
  • B is incorrect: Cryotherapy reduces inflammation not replaces lost fluids.
  • D is incorrect: Hydrotherapy aids recovery but doesn’t replace lost fluids.

PHYSICS, M3 EQ-Bank 6 MC

Thermal equilibrium occurs when:

  1. A substance changes state.
  2. Two objects are at the same temperature and no net heat flows between them.
  3. An object emits more heat than it absorbs.
  4. An object reaches its specific heat capacity.
Show Answers Only

\(B\)

Show Worked Solution
  • Thermal equilibrium describes the state where two or more objects or systems in contact have reached the same temperature, and there is no net transfer of heat between them.

\(\Rightarrow B\)

HMS, BM 2021 HSC 10 MC

At the end of a game, a netball coach gives the goal shooter the following feedback.

'You made a lot of technical errors when shooting today. Next time remember to relax and focus on your wrist action when shooting for goal.'

What type of feedback is being given?

  1. Internal
  2. Concurrent
  3. Knowledge of results
  4. Knowledge of performance
Show Answers Only

\(D\)

Show Worked Solution
  • D is correct: Feedback focuses on technique and movement quality → performance.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Internal feedback comes from within the performer.
  • B is incorrect: Concurrent feedback occurs during skill execution.
  • C is incorrect: Knowledge of results relates to outcome success.

HMS, HAG 2021 HSC 8 MC

What could be an advantage for an individual who has private health insurance

  1. The Medicare Safety Net is decreased.
  2. The Medicare Levy Surcharge needs to be paid.
  3. The cost of some ancillary health services is reduced.
  4. The recovery time after elective surgery in a private hospital is decreased.
Show Answers Only

\(C\)

Show Worked Solution
  • C is correct: Private insurance reduces costs for ancillary services such as dental and optical services.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Safety Net provides additional benefits not reductions.
  • B is incorrect: Surcharge avoided with adequate private cover.
  • D is incorrect: Recovery time depends on individual not insurance.

HMS, HIC 2021 HSC 1 MC

Which of the following describes the trend in life expectancy at birth in Australia over the last 10 years?

  1. Stable
  2. Increasing
  3. Decreasing
  4. No clear trend
Show Answers Only

\(B\)

Show Worked Solution
  • B is correct: Life expectancy has shown consistent upward trend over the decade.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Shows gradual but measurable increases.
  • C is incorrect: Opposite direction to actual trend.
  • D is incorrect: Clear pattern exists in data.

HMS, HAG 2021 HSC 32a

  1. In relation to ONE population group experiencing health inequities, outline the media's role in influencing public policy.   (3 marks)

  2. Explain the effects of a government intervention for ONE population group that experiences health inequities.   (5 marks)

Show Answers Only

i.    Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Peoples

  • Media coverage of Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander health inequities raises public awareness about persistent disparities in life expectancy and chronic disease rates.
  • Investigative journalism highlighting inadequate healthcare access in remote communities creates pressure for government policy responses.
  • Media campaigns featuring Indigenous health advocates amplify community voices and demands for culturally appropriate services.
  • Television documentaries and news reports generate public support for increased health funding and policy reforms addressing systemic barriers to healthcare access.

ii.    Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Peoples

  • The Closing the Gap strategy aims to reduce health disparities between Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Peoples and non-Indigenous Australians. This intervention works by establishing measurable targets for life expectancy, infant mortality, and chronic disease management.
  • The strategy has resulted in improved access to culturally appropriate healthcare through increased funding for Aboriginal Community Controlled Health Organisations. These services consequently provide more effective primary healthcare because they incorporate traditional healing with Western medicine and employ Indigenous health workers.
  • Educational initiatives have led to enhanced health literacy among Indigenous communities. Programs teaching diabetes management and nutrition have enabled better chronic condition self-management. This approach produces measurable improvements in blood glucose control and medication adherence.
  • However, progress remains limited in remote areas where geographical barriers continue to restrict specialist access. Additionally, social determinants like housing and employment still influence health outcomes despite targeted interventions. Overall effects demonstrate modest improvements in specific indicators while highlighting the need for broader social policy integration to address underlying inequality causes.
Show Worked Solution

i.    Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Peoples

  • Media coverage of Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander health inequities raises public awareness about persistent disparities in life expectancy and chronic disease rates.
  • Investigative journalism highlighting inadequate healthcare access in remote communities creates pressure for government policy responses.
  • Media campaigns featuring Indigenous health advocates amplify community voices and demands for culturally appropriate services.
  • Television documentaries and news reports generate public support for increased health funding and policy reforms addressing systemic barriers to healthcare access.

ii.    Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Peoples

  • The Closing the Gap strategy aims to reduce health disparities between Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Peoples and non-Indigenous Australians. This intervention works by establishing measurable targets for life expectancy, infant mortality, and chronic disease management.
  • The strategy has resulted in improved access to culturally appropriate healthcare through increased funding for Aboriginal Community Controlled Health Organisations. These services consequently provide more effective primary healthcare because they incorporate traditional healing with Western medicine and employ Indigenous health workers.
  • Educational initiatives have led to enhanced health literacy among Indigenous communities. Programs teaching diabetes management and nutrition have enabled better chronic condition self-management. This approach produces measurable improvements in blood glucose control and medication adherence.
  • However, progress remains limited in remote areas where geographical barriers continue to restrict specialist access. Additionally, social determinants like housing and employment still influence health outcomes despite targeted interventions. Overall effects demonstrate modest improvements in specific indicators while highlighting the need for broader social policy integration to address underlying inequality causes.

♦ Mean mark 50%.

HMS, TIP 2021 HSC 31a

  1. Outline the dangers to an athlete of using performance enhancing drugs.   (3 marks)

  2. It is proposed that drug testing be introduced at the Australian championships for athletes who compete in a final.
  3. Discuss the introduction of drug testing at this level of the competition.   (5 marks)
Show Answers Only

i.    Dangers of using performance enhancing drugs

  • Performance enhancing drugs pose serious physical health risks including liver damage, cardiovascular problems, and hormonal imbalances.
  • Anabolic steroids can cause heart enlargement, increasing heart attack risk, while also disrupting natural hormone production.
  • Athletes face legal consequences including competition bans, stripped titles and damaged reputations that affect sponsorship opportunities.
  • Social dangers include loss of respect from peers, family disappointment and negative role model impact on younger athletes who may follow similar dangerous practices.

ii.    Benefits of Drug Testing

  • [P] Drug testing at Australian championships promotes fair competition and athlete safety.
  • [E] Testing ensures all finalists compete on equal terms without artificial performance enhancement.
  • [Ev] For example, athletes who train naturally deserve recognition without competing against those using banned substances.
  • [L] This approach creates integrity in national-level competition where selection for international teams often occurs.
      
  • [P] Drug testing educates athletes about banned substances and long-term health protection.
  • [E] Early detection prevents serious health complications from prolonged drug use.
  • [Ev] Testing programs include education about supplement contamination and prescription medication effects.
  • [L] Therefore, athletes develop better awareness of substances that could inadvertently cause positive results.

Challenges of Drug Testing

  • [P] Drug testing creates financial burden and logistical challenges for sporting organisations.
  • [E] Testing procedures require significant funding for equipment, trained personnel, and laboratory analysis.
  • [Ev] Smaller sports may struggle to afford comprehensive testing programs for championship events.
  • [L] These costs may consequently reduce resources available for athlete development and grassroots programs.
      
  • [P] Young athletes may face unfair consequences from accidental substance consumption.
  • [E] Many athletes lack awareness about banned substances in everyday products like cough medicines.
  • [Ev] Prescribed medications or contaminated supplements could result in positive tests despite no intentional cheating.
  • [L] This creates potential career damage for innocent athletes at crucial development stages.
Show Worked Solution

i.    Dangers of using performance enhancing drugs

  • Performance enhancing drugs pose serious physical health risks including liver damage, cardiovascular problems, and hormonal imbalances.
  • Anabolic steroids can cause heart enlargement, increasing heart attack risk, while also disrupting natural hormone production.
  • Athletes face legal consequences including competition bans, stripped titles and damaged reputations that affect sponsorship opportunities.
  • Social dangers include loss of respect from peers, family disappointment and negative role model impact on younger athletes who may follow similar dangerous practices.

ii.    Benefits of Drug Testing

  • [P] Drug testing at Australian championships promotes fair competition and athlete safety.
  • [E] Testing ensures all finalists compete on equal terms without artificial performance enhancement.
  • [Ev] For example, athletes who train naturally deserve recognition without competing against those using banned substances.
  • [L] This approach creates integrity in national-level competition where selection for international teams often occurs.
      
  • [P] Drug testing educates athletes about banned substances and long-term health protection.
  • [E] Early detection prevents serious health complications from prolonged drug use.
  • [Ev] Testing programs include education about supplement contamination and prescription medication effects.
  • [L] Therefore, athletes develop better awareness of substances that could inadvertently cause positive results.

Challenges of Drug Testing

  • [P] Drug testing creates financial burden and logistical challenges for sporting organisations.
  • [E] Testing procedures require significant funding for equipment, trained personnel, and laboratory analysis.
  • [Ev] Smaller sports may struggle to afford comprehensive testing programs for championship events.
  • [L] These costs may consequently reduce resources available for athlete development and grassroots programs.
      
  • [P] Young athletes may face unfair consequences from accidental substance consumption.
  • [E] Many athletes lack awareness about banned substances in everyday products like cough medicines.
  • [Ev] Prescribed medications or contaminated supplements could result in positive tests despite no intentional cheating.
  • [L] This creates potential career damage for innocent athletes at crucial development stages.

PHYSICS, M4 EQ-Bank 7 MC

What happens when a ferromagnetic material is placed in a magnetic field?

  1. Its electrons align randomly, producing zero net field.
  2. Domains within the material align with the external magnetic field.
  3. It becomes permanently non-magnetic.
  4. The material conducts current and generates its own field.
Show Answers Only

\(B\)

Show Worked Solution
  • Ferromagnetic materials consist of magnetic domains.
  • When placed in an external magnetic field, these domains begin to align with the field, creating a net magnetisation and reinforcing the external field locally.
  • This process explains why such materials become magnetised.

\(\Rightarrow B\)

HMS, BM 2022 HSC 5 MC

Which of the following is classified as a serial, open and externally paced skill?

  1. Serving in tennis
  2. Throwing a discus
  3. Catching a basketball
  4. Downhill mountain biking
Show Answers Only

\( D \)

Show Worked Solution

D is correct: Downhill mountain biking involves multiple linked movements, environmental changes, and external timing control.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Tennis serve is discrete and self-paced.
  • B is incorrect: Discus throw is discrete and self-paced.
  • C is incorrect: Basketball catch is discrete movement.

HMS, BM EQ-Bank 1050 MC

A student investigated recovery heart rate patterns after a 3-minute step test in their aerobic training study.

Which method would be most appropriate for presenting the findings to show how heart rate changes during the 10-minute recovery period?

  1. A pie chart showing the percentage of time spent in different heart rate zones
  2. A line graph plotting heart rate measurements against time during recovery
  3. A bar graph comparing the highest heart rate reached by each participant
  4. A table listing each participant's name alongside their final recovery heart rate
Show Answers Only

\(B\)

Show Worked Solution
  • B is correct: Line graph effectively shows heart rate changes over recovery time.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Pie chart shows proportions, not changes over time.
  • C is incorrect: Bar graph shows discrete comparisons, not recovery patterns.
  • D is incorrect: Table doesn’t visually show recovery patterns over time.

PHYSICS, M4 EQ-Bank 4 MC

A long, straight conductor carries a current \(I\). Point \(\text{A}\) is located directly below the wire as seen in the diagram below.
 

Which of the following correctly describes the direction of the magnetic field at Point \(\text{A}\) due to this current?

  1. Toward the left
  2. Toward the right
  3. Into the page
  4. Out of the page
Show Answers Only

\(D\)

Show Worked Solution
  • By the right hand rule, place your thumb in the direction of the current (to the left) and the way your fingers curl is the direction of the magnetic field.
  • Hence, the magnetic field at point \(\text{A}\) will be out of the page.

\(\Rightarrow D\)

PHYSICS, M4 EQ-Bank 7

A cross-sectional diagram of a solenoid is shown below. The solenoid consists of 7 loops of wire stretched over a length of 15 cm, with a steady current of 2.8 A flowing through it. The direction of the current is shown along the loops.
 
 
 
 

 
 
 
 
 

  1. Calculate the magnitude of the magnetic field at point \(Q\) inside the solenoid.   (2 marks)
  1. On the diagram, sketch the magnetic field lines produced inside and around the solenoid due to the current and label the north pole of the solenoid with 'N'.   (3 marks)
Show Answers Only

a.    \(1.6 \times 10^{-4}\ \text{T}\)

b.    
       

Show Worked Solution
a.     \(B\) \(=\dfrac{\mu_0 NI}{L}\)
    \(=\dfrac{4\pi \times 10^{-7} \times 7 \times 2.8}{0.15}\)
    \(=1.6 \times 10^{-4}\ \text{T}\ \text{(2 sig.fig)}\)

 
b.    
       

  • Magnetic field lines should be solid, not cross over, form loops around the solenoid and be near uniform when inside of the solenoid.
  • Use of the Right hand rule to determine the direction of the field lines and north pole of the solenoid.

PHYSICS, M4 EQ-Bank 1 MC

A student constructs a 2000-turn solenoid that is 50 cm in length. She passes a current of 5 A through it.

What is the strength of the magnetic field produced inside this solenoid?

  1. \(0.0025\ \text{T}\)
  2. \(0.005\ \text{T}\)
  3. \(0.025\ \text{T}\)
  4. \(0.05\ \text{T}\)
Show Answers Only

\(C\)

Show Worked Solution

\(B=\dfrac{\mu_0NI}{L}=\dfrac{4\pi \times 10^{-7} \times 2000 \times 5}{0.5} = 0.025\ \text{T}\)

\(\Rightarrow C\)

PHYSICS, M4 EQ-Bank 9 MC

The resistors in the circuit diagram below are connected in a combination of series and/or parallel.
 

To simplify the circuit, this network of resistors can be replaced by a single resistor with an equivalent resistance of:

  1.  \(90\ \Omega\)
  2. \(70\ \Omega\)
  3. \(50\ \Omega\)
  4. \(30\ \Omega\)
Show Answers Only

\(D\)

Show Worked Solution
\(\dfrac{1}{R_{\text{para}}}\) \(=\dfrac{1}{40} + \dfrac{1}{40} = \dfrac{1}{20}\)  
\(R_{\text{para}}\) \(=20\ \Omega\)  

 
\(R_T = 20 + 10 = 30\ \Omega\)

\(\Rightarrow D\)

v1 Measurement, STD2 M1 SM-Bank 25 MC

In a food technology class, a slice of bread is measured and its thickness is recorded as 1.6 cm.

What is the upper limit of accuracy of this measurement?

  1. 1.61 cm
  2. 1.64 cm
  3. 1.65 cm
  4. 1.7 cm
Show Answers Only

`=>\ C`

Show Worked Solution

`text{Absolute error} = 0.05\ \text{cm}`

`text{Upper limit}` `= 1.6 + 0.05`
  `= 1.65\ \text{cm}`

`=>\ C`

PHYSICS, M4 EQ-Bank 3

Three resistors, \(C\), \(H\) and \(G\) are connected to a 4.0 V battery.
 

The current flowing through the ammeter is 4.0 A and the resistance of \(C\) and \(G\) are 2.0 \(\Omega\) and 1.5 \(\Omega\) respectively. The resistance of \(H\) is unknown.

  1. Calculate the total resistance of the circuit.   (1 mark)
  1. Calculate the resistance of resistor \(H\).   (2 marks)
Show Answers Only

a.    \(1\ \Omega\)

b.    \(1\ \Omega\)

Show Worked Solution

a.    \(R= \dfrac{V}{I} =\dfrac{4.0}{4.0} =1\ \Omega\).
  

b.    The total resistance \(R_1\) across \(C\) and \(H\) is \(2 + R_H\ \Omega\).

The total resistance in the parallel circuit is:

\(\dfrac{1}{R_T}\) \(=\dfrac{1}{R_1} + \dfrac{1}{G}\)  
\(\dfrac{1}{1}\) \(=\dfrac{1}{2+R_H} + \dfrac{1}{1.5}\)  
\(\dfrac{1}{2+R_H}\) \(=\dfrac{1}{3}\)  
\(R_H\) \(=1\ \Omega\)  

Calculus, 2ADV C4 EQ-Bank 2

  1. Differentiate  \(y=x^2\, \log _e x\).   (2 marks)

  2. Hence, or otherwise, find \(\displaystyle \int_1^e x\, \log _e x\, d x\).   (  marks)

Show Answers Only

a.   \(\dfrac{d y}{d x} =x+2 x\, \log _e x\)

b.   \(\dfrac{e^2}{4}+\dfrac{1}{4}\)

Show Worked Solution

a.  \(y=x^2\, \log _e x\)

\(\dfrac{d y}{d x}\) \(=x^2 \cdot \dfrac{1}{x}+2 x\, \log _e x\)
  \(=x+2 x\, \log _e x\)

 
b.     \(\text{Using part a.}\)

\(\displaystyle \int x+2 x\, \log _e x\, d x\) \(=x^2\, \log _e x+c\)  
\(\displaystyle \int x\, d x+2 \int x\, \log _e x\, d x\) \(=x^2\, \log _e x+c\)  
\(\displaystyle 2 \int_1^e x\, \log _e x\, d x\) \(=\left[x^2\, \log _e x\right]_1^e-\displaystyle \int_1^e x\, d x\)
\(\displaystyle \int_1^e x\, \log _e x\, d x\) \(=\dfrac{1}{2}\left[\left(e^2 \cdot 1\right)-0\right]-\dfrac{1}{2}\left[\dfrac{x^2}{2}\right]_1^e\)
  \(=\dfrac{e^2}{2}-\left(\dfrac{e^2}{4}-\dfrac{1}{4}\right)\)
  \(=\dfrac{e^2}{4}+\dfrac{1}{4}\)

PHYSICS, M4 EQ-Bank 4 MC

Which instrument is connected in series in an electric circuit, and why?

  1. Voltmeters, because they are designed to measure current through a component.
  2. Ammeters, because they must measure voltage drop across a component.
  3. Voltmeters, because they have very low resistance and should allow maximum current flow.
  4. Ammeters, because they have very low resistance and should not alter the current.
Show Answers Only

\(D\)

Show Worked Solution
  • Ammeters are used to measure the current flowing through a circuit, and to do this accurately, they must be connected in series with the component whose current is being measured.
  • When connected in series, all the current flowing through the circuit also flows through the ammeter. To avoid affecting the current, ammeters are designed with very low internal resistance.
  • If they had high resistance, they would reduce the current in the circuit, giving incorrect readings and possibly interfering with the circuit’s operation.

\(\Rightarrow D\)

Calculus, 2ADV C4 EQ-Bank 3

  1. Differentiate  \(y=x\, \sin (2 x)\).   (2 marks)

  2. Hence, or otherwise, find \(\displaystyle \int x\, \cos (2 x)\, d x\).  (2 marks)

Show Answers Only

a.  \(\dfrac{d y}{d x}=\sin (2 x)+2 x\, \cos (2 x)\)

b.   \(\dfrac{1}{2} x\, \sin (2 x)+\dfrac{1}{4} \cos (2 x)+c\)

Show Worked Solution

a.     \(y=x\, \sin (2 x)\)

\(\dfrac{d y}{d x}=\sin (2 x)+2 x\, \cos (2 x)\)
 

b.    \(\text {Using part a.}\)

\(\displaystyle\int \sin (2 x)+2 x\, \cos (2 x)\, d x=x\, \sin (2 x)+c\)

\(\displaystyle\int \sin (2 x)\, d x+2 \int x\, \cos (2 x)\, d x=x\, \sin (2 x)+c\)

\(2 \displaystyle \int x\, \cos (2 x)\, d x\) \(=x\, \sin (2 x)-\displaystyle \int \sin (2 x)\, d x+c\)
  \(=x\, \sin (2 x)+\dfrac{1}{2} \cos (2 x)+c\)
\(\displaystyle\int x\, \cos (2 x)\, d x\) \(=\dfrac{1}{2} x\, \sin (2 x)+\dfrac{1}{4} \cos (2 x)+c\)

PHYSICS, M4 EQ-Bank 6

  1. The diagram below shows a pair of parallel conducting plates. Using appropriate field conventions, draw electric field lines between the plates to illustrate the direction and uniformity of the electric field in the region between them.   (2 marks)
     

  

  1. The plates are separated by a distance of 8.0 cm, and a potential difference of 25 V is applied across them. Calculate the magnitude of the electric field in the region between the plates.   (1 mark)
  1. A particle of mass \(3.2 \times 10^{-20}\) kg carrying a charge of \(+2.4 \times 10^{-18}\ \text{C}\) is placed in the electric field, at a point 3 cm above the lower plate.
      
         

    Determine the magnitude and direction of the acceleration experienced by the particle due to the field.   (3 marks)

Show Answers Only

a.    
       
 
b.    \(312.5\ \text{Vm}^{-1}\)

c.    \(2.34 \times 10^4\ \text{ms}^{-2},\ \text{up the page}\)

Show Worked Solution

a.    
     

  • The electric field should be represented by vertical lines that are equally spaced and extend from the positively charged plate to the negatively charged plate, indicating a uniform field.

b.    \(E = \dfrac{V}{d} = \dfrac{25}{0.08} = 312.5\ \text{Vm}^{-1}\)
  

c.    \(F = qE = 2.4 \times 10^{-18} \times 312.5 = 7.5 \times 10^{-16}\ \text{N, up the page}\)

Calculate acceleration using  \(F=ma:\)

   \(a =\dfrac{F}{m} = \dfrac{7.5 \times 10^{-16}}{3.2 \times 10^{-20}} = 2.34 \times 10^4\ \text{ms}^{-2},\ \text{up the page}\)

PHYSICS, M4 EQ-Bank 5

A positive test charge of +4.0 \(\mu\)C is placed between two parallel plates with a uniform electric field of 45 N/C. These plates are separated by 0.5 m, and the charge moves a distance of 0.2 m from point A to point B.
 

  1. Determine the magnitude and direction of the force on the charge.   (2 marks)
  1. Find the potential difference between point A and point B.   (1 mark)
  1. How much work does the electric field do on the charge during this movement?   (1 mark)
Show Answers Only

a.    \( 1.8 \times 10^{-4}\ \text{N}\ \text{to the right}\)

b.    \(9\ \text{V}\)

c.    \(3.6 \times 10^{-5}\ \text{J}\)

Show Worked Solution

a.    \(F=qE = 4.0 \times 10^{-6} \times 45 = 1.8 \times 10^{-4}\ \text{N}\ \text{to the right}\)
 

b.    \(V = Ed = 45 \times 0.2 = 9\ \text{V}\)
 

c.    \(W= qEd = 4 \times 10^{-6} \times 45 \times 0.2 = 3.6 \times 10^{-5}\ \text{J}\)

PHYSICS, M4 EQ-Bank 3 MC

The following diagram shows the electric field between two charges.
 

Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. Charge \(q_1\) is positive and has a greater magnitude than \(q_2\).
  2. Charge \(q_1\) is positive and has a smaller magnitude than \(q_2\).
  3. Charge \(q_1\) is negative and has a greater magnitude than \(q_2\).
  4. Charge \(q_1\) is negative and has a smaller magnitude than \(q_2\).
Show Answers Only

\(B\)

Show Worked Solution
  • The field lines of an electric field are given by the direction that a small positive charge would follow. Hence \(q_1\) must be a positive charge as field lines run from \(q_1\) to \(q_2\)
  • The density of the field lines surrounding a point charge indicate the magnitude of the charge, with more lines corresponding to a greater magnitude of charge.
  • As there are more field lines around \(q_2\), it must be the stronger charge.

\(\Rightarrow B\)

PHYSICS, M4 EQ-Bank 2

Two parallel metal plates are 2.0 cm apart and are connected to a 300 V DC power supply. An alpha particle (a helium nucleus, charge = +2, mass = \(6.64 \times 10^{-27}\)) is released from rest at the positive plate.
 

  1. Calculate the magnitude and direction of the electric field between the plates.   (2 marks)
  1. Determine the final speed of the alpha particle as it reaches the negatively charged plate. Show all working.   (3 marks)
Show Answers Only

a.    \(15000\ \text{Vm}^{-1}\) towards plate B.

b.    \(1.7 \times 10^{5}\ \text{ms}^{-1}\).

Show Worked Solution

a.    \(E=\dfrac{V}{d} = \dfrac{300}{0.02} = 15\,000\ \text{Vm}^{-1}\) towards plate B.
 

b.    Using  \(F=ma = qE\):

\(a = \dfrac{qE}{m} = \dfrac{2 \times 1.602 \times 10^{-19} \times 15\,000}{6.64 \times 10^{-27}} = 7.238 \times 10^{11}\ \text{ms}^{-2}\).

 
To determine the final speed of the alpha particle:

\(v^2\) \(=u^2 + 2as\)  
\(v\) \(= \sqrt{0^2 + 2 \times 7.238 \times 10^{11} \times 0.02}\)  
  \(= 1.7 \times 10^{5}\ \text{ms}^{-1}\).  

PHYSICS, M3 EQ-Bank 18

A metal rod of length 2.0 m has one end maintained at 100\(^{\circ}\)C and the other end at 20\(^{\circ}\)C. The rod has a cross-sectional area of 0.001 m\(^2\) and thermal conductivity  \(k\) = 50 W m\(^{-1}\) K\(^{-1}\).

  1. Calculate the rate of heat transfer through the rod.   (2 marks)
  1. Explain the process by which heat is transferred through the metal rod.   (2 marks)
  1. Suggest two ways the rate of heat transfer could be increased.   (2 marks)
Show Answers Only

a.    \(2\ \text{Js}^{-1}\)

b.    Heat is transferred through the metal rod by conduction.

→ In this process, vibrating particles at the hot end transfer energy to adjacent cooler particles by collisions, causing the energy to move along the rod without the particles themselves moving significantly.

c.    Two ways to increase the rate of heat transfer:

  • Increase the temperature difference between the two ends of the material.
  • Use a material with higher thermal conductivity, such as copper instead of wood.

Other answers could include:

  • Increasing the cross-sectional area of the material or decreasing the distance the heat has to travel.
Show Worked Solution

a.    \(\dfrac{Q}{t} = \dfrac{kA\Delta T}{d} = \dfrac{50 \times 0.001 \times (100-20)}{2} = 2\ \text{Js}^{-1}\)
 

b.    Heat is transferred through the metal rod by conduction.

  • In this process, vibrating particles at the hot end transfer energy to adjacent cooler particles by collisions, causing the energy to move along the rod without the particles themselves moving significantly.

c.    Two ways to increase the rate of heat transfer:

  • Increase the temperature difference between the two ends of the material.
  • Use a material with higher thermal conductivity, such as copper instead of wood.

Other answers could include:

  • Increasing the cross-sectional area of the material or decreasing the distance the heat has to travel.

PHYSICS, M3 EQ-Bank 5 MC

A warm ceramic mug is placed on a cold metal bench. After a while, both the mug and the bench feel equally cool to the touch.

Which of the following best explains what happened?

  1. Temperature flowed from the mug to the bench until their energies were equal.
  2. Heat flowed from the mug to the bench because the mug had more internal energy.
  3. Heat flowed from the mug to the bench because the mug had a higher temperature.
  4. The mug cooled down because it had less mass than the bench.
Show Answers Only

\(C\)

Show Worked Solution
  • Temperature doesn’t “flow” from one substance to another, it is the heat (energy) that does.
  • Heat transfer is driven by the temperature difference between two substances, not the total internal energy of those substances.
  • Mass affects how much temperature changes, but not the direction of heat flow.

\(\Rightarrow C\)

v1 Measurement, STD2 M1 SM-Bank 16 MC

The diagram represents the shape of a paddock.

Estimate the area of the paddock using four applications of the Trapezoidal Rule.

  1. 123 m²
  2. 129 m²
  3. 135 m²
  4. 141 m²
Show Answers Only

`B`

Show Worked Solution

`text(Interval width:) \ h = 3 \ text(m)`

`text(Heights:) \ 6, 10, 14, 10, 12`

`text(Apply Trapezoidal Rule:)`

`text(Area)` `=3/2(6 + 2×10 + 2×14 + 2×10 + 12)`
  `= 3/2(6 + 20 + 28 + 20 + 12)`
  `=3/2(86)`
  `= 129 \ text(m)^2`

PHYSICS, M3 EQ-Bank 2 MC

Which statement best describes what the temperature of a substance is?

  1. The total energy of all the particles in a substance
  2. The average potential energy of the particles in a substance
  3. The average kinetic energy of the particles in a substance
  4. The amount of heat a substance contains
Show Answers Only

\(C\)

Show Worked Solution
  • Temperature is a measure of the average kinetic energy of the particles in a substance.
  • It reflects how fast the particles are moving; higher temperatures correspond to faster-moving particles.
  • It does not measure total energy (which includes both kinetic and potential energies) or the total heat content of the substance.

\(\Rightarrow C\)

HMS, BM EQ-Bank 982

Explain how object characteristics affect the force required for movement.   (5 marks)

Show Answers Only

Sample Answer

  • Greater object mass requires more force to achieve the same acceleration. This occurs because of Newton’s Second Law (F=ma), which means that force increases proportionally with mass.
  • Larger objects typically need more force than smaller ones. The reason for this is increased mass combined with greater air resistance from larger surface area, resulting in higher force requirements.
  • Object shape significantly influences aerodynamic properties during movement. As a result, streamlined objects require less force than irregular shapes because they experience reduced air resistance.
  • Surface conditions of objects directly affect force requirements through altered friction. For instance, wet balls become heavier and create different friction characteristics, thereby requiring adjusted force application.
  • Force must overcome both object inertia and environmental resistance. This happens when objects resist motion changes due to their mass, which leads to increased force needs for acceleration.
  • Dense materials require more force than lighter materials of similar size. Consequently, achieving equivalent movement depends on material density, as denser objects have greater mass concentration.
Show Worked Solution
  • Greater object mass requires more force to achieve the same acceleration. This occurs because of Newton’s Second Law (F=ma), which means that force increases proportionally with mass.
  • Larger objects typically need more force than smaller ones. The reason for this is increased mass combined with greater air resistance from larger surface area, resulting in higher force requirements.
  • Object shape significantly influences aerodynamic properties during movement. As a result, streamlined objects require less force than irregular shapes because they experience reduced air resistance.
  • Surface conditions of objects directly affect force requirements through altered friction. For instance, wet balls become heavier and create different friction characteristics, thereby requiring adjusted force application.
  • Force must overcome both object inertia and environmental resistance. This happens when objects resist motion changes due to their mass, which leads to increased force needs for acceleration.
  • Dense materials require more force than lighter materials of similar size. Consequently, achieving equivalent movement depends on material density, as denser objects have greater mass concentration.

HMS, BM EQ-Bank 981

Outline how the body absorbs forces during landing activities.   (3 marks)

Show Answers Only

Answers could include/expand on any of the following points:

  • Forces are absorbed through joint flexion, particularly at knees and hips
  • Muscles lengthen while contracting (eccentric contraction) to control force absorption
  • Joint bending allows gradual release of landing forces rather than sudden impact
  • Multiple joints work together to distribute forces throughout the body
  • Proper absorption technique reduces injury risk to muscles, tendons, and ligaments
Show Worked Solution

Answers could include/expand on any of the following points:

  • Forces are absorbed through joint flexion, particularly at knees and hips.
  • Muscles lengthen while contracting (eccentric contraction) to control force absorption.
  • Joint bending allows gradual release of landing forces rather than sudden impact.
  • Multiple joints work together to distribute forces throughout the body.
  • Proper absorption technique reduces injury risk to muscles, tendons, and ligaments.

HMS, BM EQ-Bank 975

Outline the key differences between internal and external forces in human movement.   (3 marks)

Show Answers Only
  • Internal forces develop within the body through muscle contractions
  • External forces come from outside the body and act upon it
  • Internal forces cause joint angle changes, such as quadriceps contracting during kicking
  • External forces include gravity, air resistance, and ground reaction forces
  • Both force types work together to produce effective human movement
Show Worked Solution
  • Internal forces develop within the body through muscle contractions
  • External forces come from outside the body and act upon it
  • Internal forces cause joint angle changes, such as quadriceps contracting during kicking
  • External forces include gravity, air resistance, and ground reaction forces
  • Both force types work together to produce effective human movement

HMS, BM EQ-Bank 974

Describe how athletes in different sports utilise Magnus force to enhance their performance.   (5 marks)

Show Answers Only

Sample Answer

Tennis – Topspin Applications

  • Players create topspin by brushing up the back of the ball during contact.
  • Topspin generates downward Magnus force that curves the ball’s flight path.
  • This allows harder shots to land within court boundaries while creating high, difficult bounces for opponents.

Cricket – Spin Bowling

  • Bowlers impart side-spin through wrist and finger actions during release.
  • The Magnus force creates lateral ball movement in flight, causing the ball to curve away from or towards batsmen.
  • Predicting ball placement becomes much harder for effective batting when spin is applied.

Soccer – Curved Free Kicks

  • Players strike the ball off-centre to create side-spin rotation.
  • Magnus force bends the ball’s path around defensive walls.
  • This enables shots that curve into goal areas that appear blocked from the initial kick angle.

Baseball – Breaking Pitches

  • Pitchers use various grips and release techniques to generate different spin directions.
  • The resulting Magnus force creates curveballs that drop and, sliders that move laterally.
  • Consequently batters have difficulty tracking ball movement and timing their swings.

Golf – Backspin Control

  • Golfers create backspin through downward club strikes that compress the ball.
  • Magnus force provides lift during flight and creates stopping power on landing.
  • This facilitates precise distance control and preventing ball roll on greens.
Show Worked Solution

Sample Answer

Tennis – Topspin Applications

  • Players create topspin by brushing up the back of the ball during contact.
  • Topspin generates downward Magnus force that curves the ball’s flight path.
  • This allows harder shots to land within court boundaries while creating high, difficult bounces for opponents.

Cricket – Spin Bowling

  • Bowlers impart side-spin through wrist and finger actions during release.
  • The Magnus force creates lateral ball movement in flight, causing the ball to curve away from or towards batsmen.
  • Predicting ball placement becomes much harder for effective batting when spin is applied.

Soccer – Curved Free Kicks

  • Players strike the ball off-centre to create side-spin rotation.
  • Magnus force bends the ball’s path around defensive walls.
  • This enables shots that curve into goal areas that appear blocked from the initial kick angle.

Baseball – Breaking Pitches

  • Pitchers use various grips and release techniques to generate different spin directions.
  • The resulting Magnus force creates curveballs that drop and, sliders that move laterally.
  • Consequently batters have difficulty tracking ball movement and timing their swings.

Golf – Backspin Control

  • Golfers create backspin through downward club strikes that compress the ball.
  • Magnus force provides lift during flight and creates stopping power on landing.
  • This facilitates precise distance control and preventing ball roll on greens.

HMS, BM EQ-Bank 973

Describe how Magnus force affects ball flight in racquet sports.   (3 marks)

Show Answers Only
  • Magnus force is created when a spinning ball moves through air.
  • The spinning motion creates pressure differences on opposite sides of the ball
  • This pressure differential causes the ball to curve in the direction of lower pressure
  • Topspin creates downward curve while backspin creates upward lift
  • Players use this force strategically to control ball placement and opponent difficulty
Show Worked Solution
  • Magnus force is created when a spinning ball moves through air.
  • The spinning motion creates pressure differences on opposite sides of the ball
  • This pressure differential causes the ball to curve in the direction of lower pressure
  • Topspin creates downward curve while backspin creates upward lift
  • Players use this force strategically to control ball placement and opponent difficulty

HMS, BM EQ-Bank 971

Explain the techniques swimmers can use to minimise drag and maximise lift forces during competition.   (5 marks)

Show Answers Only

Sample Answer

  • Swimmers maintain head-spine alignment with horizontal body position to reduce form drag. This works because streamlined positioning allows water to flow smoothly around body contours, which prevents turbulence formation. As a result, resistance decreases by up to 40% compared to poor alignment.
  • Core muscle engagement keeps hips elevated at the water surface. This technique prevents legs from sinking below the body line, thereby reducing frontal surface area exposed to water. Consequently, form drag decreases significantly while buoyancy enables more efficient stroke mechanics.
  • Tight, ankle-driven kicking with minimal knee flexion creates propulsion without excess drag. The reason for this is that small-amplitude kicks generate thrust while avoiding splash and turbulence. This coordination with arm strokes produces lift forces rather than just maintaining position.
  • Slightly cupped hand position during the catch phase maximises water displacement for propulsion. This occurs because the curved hand shape creates pressure differences between palm and back surfaces, resulting in lift forces. Therefore, swimmers achieve forward thrust more efficiently than with flat hands.
  • Compact limb positioning during gliding phases minimises form drag. By keeping arms and legs close to the centerline, swimmers reduce frontal area and prevent water from catching on extended limbs, which leads to smoother forward movement.
Show Worked Solution

Sample Answer

  • Swimmers maintain head-spine alignment with horizontal body position to reduce form drag. This works because streamlined positioning allows water to flow smoothly around body contours, which prevents turbulence formation. As a result, resistance decreases by up to 40% compared to poor alignment.
  • Core muscle engagement keeps hips elevated at the water surface. This technique prevents legs from sinking below the body line, thereby reducing frontal surface area exposed to water. Consequently, form drag decreases significantly while buoyancy enables more efficient stroke mechanics.
  • Tight, ankle-driven kicking with minimal knee flexion creates propulsion without excess drag. The reason for this is that small-amplitude kicks generate thrust while avoiding splash and turbulence. This coordination with arm strokes produces lift forces rather than just maintaining position.
  • Slightly cupped hand position during the catch phase maximises water displacement for propulsion. This occurs because the curved hand shape creates pressure differences between palm and back surfaces, resulting in lift forces. Therefore, swimmers achieve forward thrust more efficiently than with flat hands.
  • Compact limb positioning during gliding phases minimises form drag. By keeping arms and legs close to the centerline, swimmers reduce frontal area and prevent water from catching on extended limbs, which leads to smoother forward movement.

HMS, BM EQ-Bank 970

Outline how drag forces affect swimming performance.   (3 marks)

Show Answers Only
  • Drag forces oppose forward motion, reducing swimming speed and velocity.
  • Non-streamlined body positions create considerable drag, making movement more difficult.
  • Drag forces run parallel to water flow direction, exerting resistance against the swimmer.
  • Greater drag forces require more energy expenditure to maintain swimming speed.
  • Streamlined bodies create less drag, allowing more efficient movement through water.
Show Worked Solution
  • Drag forces oppose forward motion, reducing swimming speed and velocity.
  • Non-streamlined body positions create considerable drag, making movement more difficult.
  • Drag forces run parallel to water flow direction, exerting resistance against the swimmer.
  • Greater drag forces require more energy expenditure to maintain swimming speed.
  • Streamlined bodies create less drag, allowing more efficient movement through water.

HMS, BM EQ-Bank 968

How does muscle-to-fat ratio affect flotation performance in competitive swimming?   (5 marks)

Show Answers Only

Sample Answer

  • Higher muscle mass increases overall body density compared to fat tissue. This occurs because muscle tissue is approximately 18% denser than fat. Consequently swimmers with more muscle sink lower in the water. For example, a swimmer with 15% body fat floats more easily than one with 8% body fat.
  • Lower body fat percentage reduces natural buoyancy during swimming. As a result, swimmers must work harder to maintain horizontal body position, leading to increased energy expenditure. This creates greater drag as the body sits lower in the water.
  • The muscle-to-fat ratio directly affects swimming efficiency across different events. While sprinters benefit from higher muscle mass for power generation, this causes reduced flotation requiring more kick effort. Conversely, distance swimmers maintain higher fat percentages because improved flotation reduces energy costs over longer races.
  • Body position adjustments become necessary with different ratios. When muscle mass is high, swimmers must engage core muscles more actively to prevent leg drop. This compensation mechanism increases fatigue but enables maintenance of streamlined position.
  • Training adaptations can partially offset ratio disadvantages. Through specific technique work, muscular swimmers learn to optimise body position, thereby minimising the negative flotation effects while maintaining power advantages.
Show Worked Solution

Sample Answer

  • Higher muscle mass increases overall body density compared to fat tissue. This occurs because muscle tissue is approximately 18% denser than fat. Consequently swimmers with more muscle sink lower in the water. For example, a swimmer with 15% body fat floats more easily than one with 8% body fat.
  • Lower body fat percentage reduces natural buoyancy during swimming. As a result, swimmers must work harder to maintain horizontal body position, leading to increased energy expenditure. This creates greater drag as the body sits lower in the water.
  • The muscle-to-fat ratio directly affects swimming efficiency across different events. While sprinters benefit from higher muscle mass for power generation, this causes reduced flotation requiring more kick effort. Conversely, distance swimmers maintain higher fat percentages because improved flotation reduces energy costs over longer races.
  • Body position adjustments become necessary with different ratios. When muscle mass is high, swimmers must engage core muscles more actively to prevent leg drop. This compensation mechanism increases fatigue but enables maintenance of streamlined position.
  • Training adaptations can partially offset ratio disadvantages. Through specific technique work, muscular swimmers learn to optimise body position, thereby minimising the negative flotation effects while maintaining power advantages.

HMS, BM EQ-Bank 967

Outline why some swimmers find it easier to float than others.   (3 marks)

Show Answers Only
  • Individual differences in body composition and muscle-to-fat ratio affect average total body density.
  • Higher density bodies sink more easily than water.
  • The relationship between centre of gravity and centre of buoyancy varies between individuals.
  • This occurs due to different body shapes and mass distribution.
  • These variations in density and centre of gravity location directly influence flotation ability.
  • Each person’s natural body position in water is affected differently.
  • For example, a muscular swimmer with low body fat may experience leg sinking during flotation.
  • In contrast, a swimmer with higher body fat percentage maintains horizontal position effortlessly.
Show Worked Solution
  • Individual differences in body composition and muscle-to-fat ratio affect average total body density.
  • Higher density bodies sink more easily than water.
  • The relationship between centre of gravity and centre of buoyancy varies between individuals.
  • This occurs due to different body shapes and mass distribution.
  • These variations in density and centre of gravity location directly influence flotation ability.
  • Each person’s natural body position in water is affected differently.
  • For example, a muscular swimmer with low body fat may experience leg sinking during flotation.
  • In contrast, a swimmer with higher body fat percentage maintains horizontal position effortlessly.

HMS, BM EQ-Bank 966 MC

When comparing the force application of a large rugby player versus a smaller player kicking the same ball, which statement is most accurate?

  1. Both players will apply identical force regardless of their size difference
  2. The smaller player will be more effective due to better technique and speed
  3. Player size has no relationship to force application capability
  4. The larger player can potentially apply greater force due to increased mass and muscle capacity
Show Answers Only

\(D\)

Show Worked Solution
  • D is correct: Larger players typically have greater muscle mass and body mass, enabling potentially greater force generation capacity.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Physical differences directly affect force generation capability.
  • B is incorrect: While technique matters, size does influence maximum force potential.
  • C is incorrect: Body size and muscle mass directly relate to force generation capacity.

HMS, BM EQ-Bank 963 MC

A long jumper lands in the sand pit after their jump. To minimise injury risk, the most important biomechanical principle they should apply is:

  1. Landing with straight legs to transfer force quickly through the body
  2. Using joint flexion to absorb and dissipate landing forces gradually
  3. Landing on their heels to maximise contact surface area
  4. Keeping their arms rigid to maintain balance during landing
Show Answers Only

\(B\)

Show Worked Solution
  • B is correct: Joint flexion allows gradual force absorption through muscle lengthening, reducing injury risk to joints and surrounding tissues.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Straight leg landing prevents force absorption and increases injury risk.
  • C is incorrect: Heel landing creates impact forces; controlled foot placement is more important.
  • D is incorrect: Rigid arms prevent effective force absorption and balance adjustment.

HMS, BM EQ-Bank 957 MC

A swimmer pushes off from the pool wall and gradually slows down even without moving their arms or legs. This deceleration is primarily caused by:

  1. Lift forces generated by the body's movement through water
  2. Gravitational forces pulling the swimmer downward
  3. Drag forces opposing the swimmer's forward motion
  4. Buoyancy forces acting on the swimmer's body
Show Answers Only

\(C\)

Show Worked Solution
  • C is correct: Drag forces run parallel to flow direction and oppose forward motion, causing deceleration as described.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Lift forces would assist movement, not cause deceleration.
  • B is incorrect: Gravity acts vertically and wouldn’t cause horizontal deceleration.
  • D is incorrect: Buoyancy forces act vertically to support flotation, not horizontally.