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Algebra, STD2 EQ-Bank 01

Jerico is the manager of a weekend market in which there are 220 stalls for rent. From past experience, Jerico knows that if he charges \(d\) dollars to rent a stall. then the number of stalls, \(s\), that will be rented is given by:

\(s=220-4d\)

  1. How many stalls will be rented if Jerico charges $7.50 per stall .  (1 mark)

  2. Complete the following table for the function  \(s=220-4d\).   (1 mark)

\begin{array} {|c|c|c|}
\hline
\rule{0pt}{2.5ex} \quad d\quad \rule[-1ex]{0pt}{0pt} & \rule{0pt}{2.5ex} \quad 10\quad\rule[-1ex]{0pt}{0pt} & \rule{0pt}{2.5ex} \quad 30\quad & \rule{0pt}{2.5ex} \quad 50\quad \\
\hline
\rule{0pt}{2.5ex} \quad s\quad \rule[-1ex]{0pt}{0pt} & \ & \ & \\
\hline
\end{array}

  1. Using an appropriate vertical scale and labelled axes, graph the function  \(s=220-4d\) on the grid below.  (2 marks)
  1. Does it make sense to use the formula \(s=220-4d\)  to calculate the number of stalls rented if Jerico charges $60 per stall? Explain your answer.   (2 marks)

Show Answers Only
  

a.    \(190\ \text{stalls will be rented}\)

b.

\begin{array} {|c|c|c|}
\hline
\rule{0pt}{2.5ex} \quad d\quad \rule[-1ex]{0pt}{0pt} & \rule{0pt}{2.5ex} \quad 10\quad\rule[-1ex]{0pt}{0pt} & \rule{0pt}{2.5ex} \quad 30\quad & \rule{0pt}{2.5ex} \quad 50\quad \\
\hline
\rule{0pt}{2.5ex} \quad s\quad \rule[-1ex]{0pt}{0pt} & 180 \ & 100 \ & 20  \\
\hline
\end{array}

c.

d.    \(\text{When}\ d=60, s=220-4\times 60=-20\)

\(\therefore\ \text{It does not make sense to charge }$60\ \text{ per stall}\)

\(\text{as you cannot have a negative number of stalls.}\)

 

Show Worked Solution
a.     \(s\) \(=220-4d\)
    \(=220-4\times 7.50\)
    \(=190\)

  
\(190\ \text{stalls will be rented}\)

b.

\begin{array} {|c|c|c|}
\hline
\rule{0pt}{2.5ex} \quad d\quad \rule[-1ex]{0pt}{0pt} & \rule{0pt}{2.5ex} \quad 10\quad\rule[-1ex]{0pt}{0pt} & \rule{0pt}{2.5ex} \quad 30\quad & \rule{0pt}{2.5ex} \quad 50\quad \\
\hline
\rule{0pt}{2.5ex} \quad s\quad \rule[-1ex]{0pt}{0pt} & 180 \ & 100 \ & 20  \\
\hline
\end{array}

c.

d.    \(\text{When}\ d=60, s=220-4\times 60=-20\)

\(\therefore\ \text{It does not make sense to charge }$60\ \text{ per stall}\)

\(\text{as you cannot have a negative number of stalls.}\)

Vectors, EXT2 V1 2025 HSC 1 MC

Points \(A\) and \(B\) are \((-3,1)\) and \((1,4)\) respectively.

Which of the following is a vector equation of the line \(A B\) with parameter \(\lambda\) ?

  1. \(\displaystyle \binom{x}{y}=\binom{1}{4}+\lambda\binom{3}{4}\)
  2. \(\displaystyle\binom{x}{y}=\binom{3}{4}+\lambda\binom{1}{4}\)
  3. \(\displaystyle\binom{x}{y}=\binom{4}{3}+\lambda\binom{-3}{1}\)
  4. \(\displaystyle\binom{x}{y}=\binom{-3}{1}+\lambda\binom{4}{3}\)
Show Answers Only

\(D\)

Show Worked Solution

\(\overrightarrow{AB}=\displaystyle \binom{1}{4}-\binom{-3}{1}=\binom{4}{3}\)

\(\text{Line} \ \ AB:\)

\(\displaystyle \binom{x}{y}=\binom{-3}{1}+\lambda\binom{4}{3}\)

\(\Rightarrow D\)

Functions, 2ADV F1 2025 HSC 11

The graph of a quadratic function represented by the equation  \(h=t^2-8 t+12\)  is shown.
 

  1. Find the values of \(t\) and \(h\) at the turning point of the graph.   (2 marks)

  2. The graph shows  \(h=12\)  when  \(t=0\).
  3. What is the other value of \(t\) for which  \(h=12\)?   (1 mark)

Show Answers Only

a.   \(\text{Turning point at} \ \ (4,-4)\)

b.   \(t=8\)

Show Worked Solution

a.    \(\text{Strategy 1 (no calculus)}\)

\(\text{Axis of quadratic occurs when}\ \ t= \dfrac{2+6}{2} = 4\)

\(\text{At} \ \ t=4:\)

\(h=4^2-8 \times 4+12=-4\)

\(\therefore \ \text{Turning point at} \ \ (4,-4)\)
 

\(\text{Strategy 2 (using calculus)}\)

\(h=t^2-8 t+12\)

\(h^{\prime}=2 t-8\)

\(\text{Find \(t\) when} \ \ h^{\prime}=0:\)

\(2 t-8=0 \ \Rightarrow \ t=4\)
 

b.    \(\text {When} \ \ h=12:\)

\(t^2-8 t+12\) \(=12\)
\(t(t-8)\) \(=0\)

 
\(\therefore \ \text{Other value:} \ \ t=8\)

v1 Measurement, STD2 M7 2018 HSC 27a

Alex used a cloud storage service for one month.

The plan has a base monthly cost of $25. The service also charges 45 cents per GB uploaded and 12 cents per GB downloaded.

During the month, Alex uploaded 180 GB and downloaded 350 GB.

What was the total bill for the month?   (2 marks)

Show Answers Only

`$148.00`

Show Worked Solution

`text(Upload charge = 180 × 45c = $81.00)`

`text(Download charge = 350 × 12c = $42.00)`

`:.\ text(Total bill)` `= 25 + 81 + 42`
  `= $148.00`

HMS, TIP EQ-Bank 273

Describe why planning is crucial for athletes to meet their sleep, nutrition and hydration needs alongside their training commitments.   (3 marks)

Show Answers Only
  • Planning is crucial to ensure sleep, nutrition and hydration guidelines are met alongside demanding training schedules.
  • Athletes must coordinate meal preparation and timing with training sessions to optimise energy availability and recovery.
  • Sleep planning becomes essential for late games or events that can impact normal sleep patterns and recovery.
  • Hydration planning requires athletes to schedule drink breaks throughout the day based on weather conditions and training intensity.
  • Without proper planning, athletes may struggle to balance nutritional needs with training demands and competition schedules.
Show Worked Solution
  • Planning is crucial to ensure sleep, nutrition and hydration guidelines are met alongside demanding training schedules.
  • Athletes must coordinate meal preparation and timing with training sessions to optimise energy availability and recovery.
  • Sleep planning becomes essential for late games or events that can impact normal sleep patterns and recovery.
  • Hydration planning requires athletes to schedule drink breaks throughout the day based on weather conditions and training intensity.
  • Without proper planning, athletes may struggle to balance nutritional needs with training demands and competition schedules.

HMS, TIP EQ-Bank 270

Outline the general sleep guidelines recommended for athletes to reduce fatigue and support optimal recovery.   (3 marks)

Show Answers Only
  • Athletes should aim for 8-10 hours of sleep per night to allow for optimal rest and recovery from training demands.
  • Sleep duration may need to be increased during intense training periods when physical and mental stress levels are higher.
  • Deep sleep and REM sleep phases are particularly important for optimal recovery and cognitive functioning in athletes.
  • Consistent sleep and wake-up times help establish healthy sleep patterns for sustained performance.
  • Quality sleep helps reduce fatigue and supports the body’s natural recovery processes between training sessions.
Show Worked Solution
  • Athletes should aim for 8-10 hours of sleep per night to allow for optimal rest and recovery from training demands.
  • Sleep duration may need to be increased during intense training periods when physical and mental stress levels are higher.
  • Deep sleep and REM sleep phases are particularly important for optimal recovery and cognitive functioning in athletes.
  • Consistent sleep and wake-up times help establish healthy sleep patterns for sustained performance.
  • Quality sleep helps reduce fatigue and supports the body’s natural recovery processes between training sessions.

HMS, TIP EQ-Bank 267

Describe the general daily fluid intake recommendations for athletes and the indicators used to monitor hydration status.   (3 marks)

Show Answers Only
  • The general baseline recommendation for athletes is 3.7 litres per day for men and 2.7 litres per day for women.
  • However, fluid intake varies significantly with training intensity and climate conditions requiring individual adjustments.
  • Athletes should aim for pale yellow urine as a sign of good hydration status.
  • Urine colour monitoring helps assess hydration levels, with lighter colours indicating better hydration.
  • Darker urine colour indicates dehydration and the need for increased fluid intake.
Show Worked Solution
  • The general baseline recommendation for athletes is 3.7 litres per day for men and 2.7 litres per day for women.
  • However, fluid intake varies significantly with training intensity and climate conditions requiring individual adjustments.
  • Athletes should aim for pale yellow urine as a sign of good hydration status.
  • Urine colour monitoring helps assess hydration levels, with lighter colours indicating better hydration.
  • Darker urine colour indicates dehydration and the need for increased fluid intake.

HMS, TIP EQ-Bank 264

Outline the general principles of nutrient timing for endurance athletes before, during and after performance.   (3 marks)

Show Answers Only
  • Pre-performance nutrition should focus on carbohydrate intake several hours before activity to optimise glycogen stores for sustained exercise.
  • Food consumed prior to activity is useful only if digested and its energy made available to working muscles.
  • During longer endurance events, athletes need carbohydrate replacement to maintain blood glucose levels and delay fatigue.
  • Post-performance nutrition aims to quickly restore glycogen stores and return the body to its pre-event state.
  • Proper timing maximises energy availability while avoiding digestive issues during prolonged competition.
Show Worked Solution
  • Pre-performance nutrition should focus on carbohydrate intake several hours before activity to optimise glycogen stores for sustained exercise.
  • Food consumed prior to activity is useful only if digested and its energy made available to working muscles.
  • During longer endurance events, athletes need carbohydrate replacement to maintain blood glucose levels and delay fatigue.
  • Post-performance nutrition aims to quickly restore glycogen stores and return the body to its pre-event state.
  • Proper timing maximises energy availability while avoiding digestive issues during prolonged competition.

HMS, TIP EQ-Bank 261

Describe the main functions of the three macronutrients for athletes and how each contributes to athletic performance.   (3 marks)

Show Answers Only
  • Carbohydrates are required by all athletes to be broken down and stored as glycogen for energy production.
  • They provide the main fuel source for energy systems, particularly the aerobic energy system during endurance activities.
  • Fats are stored as triglycerides, similar to glycogen, and help produce energy during prolonged exercise.
  • Protein is used for muscle repair for all athletes, particularly weightlifters who require enhanced recovery.
  • Athletes have higher protein needs due to muscle repair requirements after training and competition.
Show Worked Solution
  • Carbohydrates are required by all athletes to be broken down and stored as glycogen for energy production.
  • They provide the main fuel source for energy systems, particularly the aerobic energy system during endurance activities.
  • Fats are stored as triglycerides, similar to glycogen, and help produce energy during prolonged exercise.
  • Protein is used for muscle repair for all athletes, particularly weightlifters who require enhanced recovery.
  • Athletes have higher protein needs due to muscle repair requirements after training and competition.

HMS, TIP EQ-Bank 258

Outline why athletes need to follow dietary guidelines specific to their sport to improve performance.   (3 marks)

Show Answers Only
  • Athletes need sport-specific dietary requirements because different sports require different energy intakes depending on their predominant energy system.
  • Marathon runners rely on the aerobic energy system requiring carbohydrates as the main fuel source for sustained performance.
  • Sprinters depend on the ATP/PCr energy system, requiring different nutritional support compared to endurance athletes.
  • Athletes must eat enough macronutrients and micronutrients suitable for their specific sport and training requirements.
  • Without proper nutrition, athletes will lack the energy needed to train effectively and sustain competition performance.
Show Worked Solution
  • Athletes need sport-specific dietary requirements because different sports require different energy intakes depending on their predominant energy system.
  • Marathon runners rely on the aerobic energy system requiring carbohydrates as the main fuel source for sustained performance.
  • Sprinters depend on the ATP/PCr energy system, requiring different nutritional support compared to endurance athletes.
  • Athletes must eat enough macronutrients and micronutrients suitable for their specific sport and training requirements.
  • Without proper nutrition, athletes will lack the energy needed to train effectively and sustain competition performance.

HMS, TIP EQ-Bank 257

Outline the main structural changes that occur in muscle fibres during the hypertrophy process following strength training.   (3 marks)

Show Answers Only
  • Muscle hypertrophy refers to the increase in muscle size due to growth in muscle fibres.
  • The process involves enlargement of cross-sectional muscle area following strength training demands.
  • Structural changes include an increase in actin and myosin filaments within the muscle cells.
  • Myofibrils within muscle fibres also enlarge to support enhanced muscle contraction.
  • Connective tissues that support muscle contraction strengthen during the hypertrophy process.
  • These adaptations occur when muscles are challenged beyond their normal capacity through progressive resistance training.
Show Worked Solution
  • Muscle hypertrophy refers to the increase in muscle size due to growth in muscle fibres.
  • The process involves enlargement of cross-sectional muscle area following strength training demands.
  • Structural changes include an increase in actin and myosin filaments within the muscle cells.
  • Myofibrils within muscle fibres also enlarge to support enhanced muscle contraction.
  • Connective tissues that support muscle contraction strengthen during the hypertrophy process.
  • These adaptations occur when muscles are challenged beyond their normal capacity through progressive resistance training.

HMS, TIP EQ-Bank 252

Outline the main characteristics that distinguish slow twitch muscle fibres from fast twitch muscle fibres in terms of their structure and function.   (3 marks)

Show Answers Only
  • Slow twitch fibres contract slowly and sustain activity for extended periods without fatigue.
  • They are efficient at using oxygen to generate energy through aerobic metabolism pathways.
  • Slow twitch fibres contain high numbers of mitochondria and increased myoglobin content for oxygen storage.
  • Fast twitch fibres contract quickly and generate high power output but fatigue rapidly.
  • They rely primarily on anaerobic energy systems for fuel during explosive movements.
  • Fast twitch fibres have lower mitochondrial density but greater glycolytic enzyme activity for rapid energy production.
Show Worked Solution
  • Slow twitch fibres contract slowly and sustain activity for extended periods without fatigue.
  • They are efficient at using oxygen to generate energy through aerobic metabolism pathways.
  • Slow twitch fibres contain high numbers of mitochondria and increased myoglobin content for oxygen storage.
  • Fast twitch fibres contract quickly and generate high power output but fatigue rapidly.
  • They rely primarily on anaerobic energy systems for fuel during explosive movements.
  • Fast twitch fibres have lower mitochondrial density but greater glycolytic enzyme activity for rapid energy production.

HMS, TIP EQ-Bank 246

Why are warm-up and cool-down components considered essential parts of every training session for both aerobic and strength training programs?   (3 marks)

Show Answers Only
  • Warm-up components prepare the body for training by gradually increasing heart rate and muscle temperature.
  • This process reduces injury risk through improved joint mobility and muscle elasticity before intense exercise.
  • Warm-up activities enhance performance by activating the cardiovascular system and preparing muscles for training demands.
  • Cool-down components help gradually lower heart rate and prevent blood pooling in extremities after exercise.
  • This enables better recovery by promoting lactic acid removal and reducing muscle stiffness post-training.
Show Worked Solution
  • Warm-up components prepare the body for training by gradually increasing heart rate and muscle temperature.
  • This process reduces injury risk through improved joint mobility and muscle elasticity before intense exercise.
  • Warm-up activities enhance performance by activating the cardiovascular system and preparing muscles for training demands.
  • Cool-down components help gradually lower heart rate and prevent blood pooling in extremities after exercise.
  • This enables better recovery by promoting lactic acid removal and reducing muscle stiffness post-training.

HMS, TIP EQ-Bank 243

A football player has been using the same strength training routine for 12 weeks, performing identical exercises, sets and repetitions in each session. Their coach suggests applying the variety principle to improve training effectiveness.

Outline three different ways the variety principle could be applied to the football player's strength training program.   (3 marks)

Show Answers Only
  • Equipment variety can be applied by alternating between free weights, fixed machines and elastic bands across different training sessions.
  • Exercise selection variety involves changing from bench press to push-ups or dumbbell flies to target chest muscles differently.
  • Session type variety includes incorporating supersets, drop sets or pyramid training methods instead of standard straight sets.
  • Training environment variety could involve outdoor training sessions, different gym locations or home-based body weight workouts.
  • These variety applications prevent training plateaus while maintaining athlete motivation and engagement.
Show Worked Solution
  • Equipment variety can be applied by alternating between free weights, fixed machines and elastic bands across different training sessions.
  • Exercise selection variety involves changing from bench press to push-ups or dumbbell flies to target chest muscles differently.
  • Session type variety includes incorporating supersets, drop sets or pyramid training methods instead of standard straight sets.
  • Training environment variety could involve outdoor training sessions, different gym locations or home-based body weight workouts.
  • These variety applications prevent training plateaus while maintaining athlete motivation and engagement.

HMS, TIP EQ-Bank 241

A 20-year-old athlete wants to train within their aerobic training zone to improve cardiovascular fitness. They calculate their maximum heart rate as 200 beats per minute and know that the aerobic threshold is approximately 70% of maximum heart rate.

Describe the characteristics of training at the aerobic threshold and what happens when the athlete exercises above this intensity level.   (3 marks)

Show Answers Only
  • Training at aerobic threshold involves exercising at approximately 140 beats per minute for sustained periods.
  • Aerobic threshold represents the minimum intensity required to achieve cardiovascular training adaptations and improvements.
  • Athletes can maintain steady-state exercise at this level using primarily aerobic energy systems for fuel.
  • Exercising above aerobic threshold but below anaerobic threshold places athletes in the aerobic training zone.
  • Training above anaerobic threshold results in rapid lactate accumulation and inability to sustain exercise intensity.
Show Worked Solution
  • Training at aerobic threshold involves exercising at approximately 140 beats per minute for sustained periods.
  • Aerobic threshold represents the minimum intensity required to achieve cardiovascular training adaptations and improvements.
  • Athletes can maintain steady-state exercise at this level using primarily aerobic energy systems for fuel.
  • Exercising above aerobic threshold but below anaerobic threshold places athletes in the aerobic training zone.
  • Training above anaerobic threshold results in rapid lactate accumulation and inability to sustain exercise intensity.

HMS, TIP EQ-Bank 238

A tennis coach uses drills and modified games to help players improve their backhand technique. The coach notices that players perform well during drills but struggle to use the backhand effectively during actual match play.

Explain why modified games might be more effective than drills for developing the backhand skill in competitive situations.   (3 marks)

Show Answers Only
  • Drills involve repetitive practice under controlled conditions without decision-making pressure or opposition.
  • This creates limited transfer to match situations where players face unpredictable ball placement and timing.
  • Modified games provide realistic match conditions with decision-making requirements and variable ball trajectories.
  • These conditions enable players to practice backhand technique while responding to changing game situations.
  • Therefore modified games better prepare players for competitive backhand execution under match pressure.
Show Worked Solution
  • Drills involve repetitive practice under controlled conditions without decision-making pressure or opposition.
  • This creates limited transfer to match situations where players face unpredictable ball placement and timing.
  • Modified games provide realistic match conditions with decision-making requirements and variable ball trajectories.
  • These conditions enable players to practice backhand technique while responding to changing game situations.
  • Therefore modified games better prepare players for competitive backhand execution under match pressure.

HMS, HAG EQ-Bank 82 MC

Which sector classification includes religious organisations and charity groups that operate health services?

  1. Federal government sector
  2. State government sector
  3. Local government sector
  4. Private sector
Show Answers Only

\(D\)

Show Worked Solution
  • D is correct: Religious organisations and charity groups operate health services within the private sector.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Religious and charity groups are not part of federal government operations.
  • B is incorrect: These organisations operate independently from state government structures.
  • C is incorrect: Local government doesn’t include religious organisations and charity groups.

HMS, HAG EQ-Bank 24 MC

Australia's Medicare system provides universal healthcare coverage to all citizens. Which factor explains why countries with similar universal healthcare systems might still have different health outcomes?

  1. All countries with universal healthcare have identical health outcomes
  2. Healthcare systems are the only factor influencing population health
  3. Universal coverage guarantees the highest life expectancy possible
  4. Social determinants and lifestyle factors also influence health beyond healthcare access
Show Answers Only

\(D\)

Show Worked Solution
  • D is correct: Health outcomes depend on multiple factors beyond just healthcare system design.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Countries with universal systems still show varied health outcomes.
  • B is incorrect: Social, cultural, and environmental factors also influence population health.
  • C is incorrect: Universal coverage important but doesn’t guarantee optimal life expectancy.

HMS, HAG EQ-Bank 18 MC

According to Australia's Health 2024 data, which health indicator shows Australia performing BELOW the OECD average?

  1. Life expectancy at birth
  2. Daily tobacco smoking rates
  3. Overweight and obesity prevalence
  4. Cardiovascular disease mortality rates
Show Answers Only

\(C\)

Show Worked Solution
  • C is correct: Australia’s obesity rate exceeds OECD average indicating below-average performance.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Australia ranks fourth highest for life expectancy.
  • B is incorrect: Australia has fifth lowest smoking rates among OECD.
  • D is incorrect: Australia has fifth lowest cardiovascular mortality rates.

HMS, HIC 2012 HSC 4 MC

Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor of cardiovascular disease?

  1. Age
  2. Diet
  3. Gender
  4. Heredity
Show Answers Only

\(B\)

Show Worked Solution
  • B is correct: Diet is a modifiable behavioural risk factor for cardiovascular disease.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Age is a non-modifiable demographic risk factor.
  • C is incorrect: Gender is a non-modifiable biological risk factor.
  • D is incorrect: Heredity is a non-modifiable genetic risk factor.

HMS, TIP 2013 HSC 11 MC

Which principle of training refers to aligning training activities with the demands of a particular sport?

  1. Variety
  2. Specificity
  3. Reversibility
  4. Warm up and cool down
Show Answers Only

\(B\)

Show Worked Solution
  • B is correct: Specificity requires training to match sport-specific movement patterns.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Variety prevents boredom, not sport-specific alignment.
  • C is incorrect: Reversibility refers to fitness loss without training.
  • D is incorrect: Warm-up/cool-down are preparation protocols, not alignment principles.

HMS, HAG 2013 HSC 8 MC

Which of the following best explains why breast cancer death rates are decreasing while incidence rates are increasing in Australia?

  1. Enhanced early detection and treatment
  2. Increased use and acceptance of alternative medicines
  3. Improved access to and delivery of immunisation programs
  4. Advances in understanding the role of family history in surviving breast cancer after diagnosis
Show Answers Only

\(A\)

Show Worked Solution
  • A is correct: Early detection and treatment improve survival despite higher incidence.

Other Options:

  • B is incorrect: Alternative medicines not primary factor in survival improvement.
  • C is incorrect: No immunisation exists for breast cancer prevention.
  • D is incorrect: Family history understanding doesn’t explain incidence/mortality trends.

HMS, HAG 2013 HSC 6 MC

What is a benefit of emerging medical technologies?

  1. They are readily accessible for all patients.
  2. They are inexpensive for public and private hospitals.
  3. They can provide a means of early detection.
  4. They decrease the need for Medicare and the Pharmaceuticals Benefits Scheme.
Show Answers Only

\(C\)

Show Worked Solution
  • C is correct: New technologies enable earlier disease detection and diagnosis.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Emerging technologies often have limited initial accessibility.
  • B is incorrect: New technologies typically expensive during early adoption.
  • D is incorrect: Technologies complement rather than replace Medicare/PBS systems.

HMS, HIC 2013 HSC 2 MC

Which of the following measures is NOT used to determine the health status of the population?

  1. Mortality
  2. Morbidity
  3. Quality of life
  4. Life expectancy
Show Answers Only

\(C\)

Show Worked Solution
  • C is correct: Quality of life is subjective measure, not epidemiological indicator.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Mortality is key health status measurement tool.
  • B is incorrect: Morbidity measures illness levels in populations effectively.
  • D is incorrect: Life expectancy is standard health status indicator.

HMS, HIC 2014 HSC 3 MC

What is the purpose of epidemiology?

  1. To identify causes and patterns of disease in a population
  2. To track hospital admission rates and ambulance response times
  3. To determine how health care budgets are managed by governments
  4. To monitor prescription medicines being administered by doctors to their patients
Show Answers Only

\(A\)

Show Worked Solution
  • A is correct: Epidemiology studies disease causes and patterns in populations.

Other Options:

  • B is incorrect: Hospital tracking is health service monitoring not epidemiology.
  • C is incorrect: Budget management is health economics not epidemiology.
  • D is incorrect: Prescription monitoring is pharmaceutical surveillance not epidemiology.

HMS, HAG 2015 HSC 1 MC

Which of the following is the main benefit of emerging treatments and technologies in health care

  1. Reduced costs for health care
  2.  Reduced dental health problems
  3. Improved early detection and screening procedures
  4. Improved waiting times for surgery in public hospitals
Show Answers Only

\(C\)

Show Worked Solution
  • C is correct: New technologies primarily enable earlier disease identification and screening.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Technology typically increases rather than reduces healthcare costs.
  • B is incorrect: Too specific, not the main overall benefit.
  • D is incorrect: Technology doesn’t directly address surgical waiting times.

HMS, HAG 2016 HSC 17 MC

Which of the following best describes healthy ageing?

  1. Ageing at a healthy rate and trying to look younger
  2. Increasing the proportion of people who consume healthy foods throughout their life
  3. Reducing the risk of illness and disease when growing older by maintaining physical, dietary and mental health
  4. Reducing the number of people who die at a young age from illnesses related to hereditary and genetic factors
Show Answers Only

\(C\)

Show Worked Solution
  • C is correct: Healthy ageing involves maintaining wellness across all health dimensions.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Focus on appearance rather than genuine health maintenance.
  • B is incorrect: Too narrow, only addresses nutrition not comprehensive health.
  • D is incorrect: Describes preventing premature death, not healthy ageing process.

HMS, HAG 2018 HSC 10 MC

Which of the following best describes Medicare?

  1. It is funded by taxpayers and covers the cost of ambulance services.
  2. It is funded by private contributions and covers the cost of physiotherapy.
  3. It is funded by insurance premiums and covers the cost of private hospitals.
  4. It is funded by a levy and subsidises the cost of visits to general practitioners.
Show Answers Only

\(D\)

Show Worked Solution

  • D is correct: Medicare is funded by a levy and subsidises GP visits through bulk billing.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Ambulance services are typically state-funded, not covered by Medicare.
  • B is incorrect: Medicare is government-funded through levy, not private contributions.
  • C is incorrect: Private health insurance covers private hospitals, not Medicare.

HMS, TIP 2018 HSC 1 MC

Which athlete would most benefit from consuming a pre-event meal that is high in complex carbohydrates?

  1. A triathlete
  2. A shot-putter
  3. A high jumper
  4. A soccer goalkeeper
Show Answers Only

\(A\)

Show Worked Solution

  • A is correct: Triathletes need sustained energy from complex carbohydrates for endurance events.

Other Options:

  • B is incorrect: Shot-putters require explosive power, not sustained carbohydrate energy.
  • C is incorrect: High jumpers need power and technique, not endurance fuel.
  • D is incorrect: Goalkeepers need quick reactions, not sustained carbohydrate energy.

HMS, HAG 2019 HSC 2 MC

Which alternative health care treatment involves inserting fine needles into specific parts of the body?

  1. Acupuncture
  2. Chiropractic
  3. Homeopathy
  4. Iridology
Show Answers Only

\(A\)

Show Worked Solution

  • A is correct: Acupuncture uses fine needles inserted into specific body points

Other Options:

  • B is incorrect: Chiropractic involves spinal manipulation and adjustments.
  • C is incorrect: Homeopathy uses diluted substances as remedies.
  • D is incorrect: Iridology examines the iris for health diagnosis.

HMS, HAG 2019 HSC 1 MC

Which of the following is a non-modifiable risk factor for breast cancer?

  1. Age
  2. Obesity
  3. High-fat diet
  4. Physical inactivity
Show Answers Only

\(A\)

Show Worked Solution

  • A is correct: Age cannot be changed and increases breast cancer risk.

Other Options:

  • B is incorrect: Obesity is modifiable through diet and exercise.
  • C is incorrect: High-fat diet can be changed through nutrition choices.
  • D is incorrect: Physical inactivity is modifiable through lifestyle changes.

HMS, BM 2020 HSC 3 MC

A player is motivated when, following a pre-season tournament, he is presented with a trophy for being the highest goal scorer and receives cheers and encouragement from the crowd.

Which of the following identifies both the source and type of motivation for this player?

  1. Extrinsic and positive
  2. Extrinsic and negative
  3. Intrinsic and positive
  4. Intrinsic and negative
Show Answers Only

\(A\)

Show Worked Solution
  • A is correct: External reward (trophy/cheers) creates positive motivational experience.

Other Options:

  • B is incorrect: Reward and praise create positive not negative motivation.
  • C is incorrect: Trophy and cheers are external not internal motivation.
  • D is incorrect: External source and positive not negative experience.

HMS, HIC 2020 HSC 2 MC

Which of the following identifies the measures of epidemiology?

  1. Diversity, life expectancy, morbidity, quality of life
  2. Infant mortality, life expectancy, morbidity, mortality
  3. Health status, incidence of disease, morbidity, mortality
  4. Infant mortality, mortality, prevalence of disease, quality of life
Show Answers Only

\(B\)

Show Worked Solution
  • B is correct: All four are standard epidemiological measures of population health.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Diversity and quality of life not epidemiological measures.
  • C is incorrect: Health status and incidence too general or specific.
  • D is incorrect: Quality of life not an epidemiological measure.

HMS, HAG 2020 HSC 1 MC

Which type of cancer are people who work outdoors most at risk of developing?

  1. Bowel
  2. Breast
  3. Cervical
  4. Skin
Show Answers Only

\(D\)

Show Worked Solution
  • D is correct: UV exposure from sun increases skin cancer risk significantly.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Bowel cancer linked to diet and lifestyle factors.
  • B is incorrect: Breast cancer affects females, not outdoor work-related.
  • C is incorrect: Cervical cancer caused by HPV, not sun exposure.

HMS, HAG 2021 HSC 13 MC

The chance of being alive for five years after being diagnosed with a condition, compared with the general population, is called the 5-year relative survival rate.

The table shows data for breast cancer and lung cancer in Australia, 2011-2015.

\begin{array} {|l|c|}
\hline
\rule{0pt}{2.5ex}\ \ \textit{Cancer}\ \ \rule[-1ex]{0pt}{0pt} & \textit{5-year relative survival rate}\\
\hline
\rule{0pt}{2.5ex}\text{Breast}\rule[-1ex]{0pt}{0pt} & \text{90.8%}\\
\hline
\rule{0pt}{2.5ex}\text{Lung}\rule[-1ex]{0pt}{0pt} & \text{17.4%}\\
\hline
\end{array}

Which of the following provides the most likely reason for the difference in these 5-year relative survival rates?

  1. Health promotion strategies in schools have been more effective in reducing risk factors for lung cancer compared to breast cancer.
  2. There was a higher hospitalisation rate and greater demand for emerging treatments for lung cancer compared to breast cancer.
  3. There was a higher demand for palliative care services when individuals were diagnosed with breast cancer compared to lung cancer.
  4. Technology advancements have increased early detection and provided more successful treatment options for breast cancer compared to lung cancer.
Show Answers Only

\(D\)

Show Worked Solution
  • D is correct: Early detection technology improves breast cancer survival rates.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: School strategies less effective for lung cancer.
  • B is incorrect: Higher demand doesn’t improve survival outcomes.
  • C is incorrect: Breast cancer has better prognosis requiring less palliative care.

HMS, TIP 2021 HSC 7 MC

A golfer is extremely nervous and shaking prior to hitting the ball. She closes her eyes and pictures herself making a smooth back swing.

Which psychological strategy is the golfer using?

  1. Focusing
  2. Goal setting
  3. Visualisation
  4. Concentration
Show Answers Only

\(C\)

Show Worked Solution
  • C is correct: Mental imagery of successful performance defines visualisation.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Focusing involves attention on specific cues.
  • B is incorrect: Goal setting establishes specific performance targets.
  • D is incorrect: Concentration maintains attention without mental imagery.

HMS, HIC EQ-Bank 454 MC

The 'We're All in this Together' initiative in the Illawarra region aims to address how many SDGs?

  1. 5 SDGs
  2. 6 SDGs
  3. 7 SDGs
  4. 8 SDGs
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\(C\)

Show Worked Solution
  • C is correct: The initiative addresses SDGs 3, 4, 5, 10, 11, 12 and 17 (seven SDGs total).

Other Options:

  • A, B and D incorrect: All incorrect number of SDGs

HMS, HIC EQ-Bank 449 MC

The 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development includes how many Sustainable Development Goals?

  1. 15 goals
  2. 17 goals
  3. 19 goals
  4. 21 goals
Show Answers Only

\(B\)

Show Worked Solution
  • B is correct: The UN developed 17 Sustainable Development Goals to be achieved by 2030.

Other Options:

  • A, C and D all incorrect as they quote an innaccurate number of goals.

HMS, BM 2024 HSC 5 MC

An athlete creates the following sequence of images in their mind as part of their training.
 

Which psychological strategy best describes the process being used by the athlete?

  1. Goal setting
  2. Concentration
  3. Mental rehearsal
  4. Relaxation techniques
Show Answers Only

\(C\)

Show Worked Solution
  • C is correct: The sequence of images shows the steps of performing a high jump, which the athlete is visualising in their mind as a form of mental rehearsal/visualisation/imagery.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Images show visualisation, not establishing performance targets.
  • B is incorrect: Concentration involves focusing attention, not mentally rehearsing a sequence.
  • D is incorrect: Relaxation involves tension reduction methods, not skill visualisation.

HMS, BM EQ-Bank 949

Identify two signs of dehydration that might affect an athlete's movement during competition.   (2 marks)

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Sample Answer – Any 2 of the following:

  • Decreased coordination – Loss of fine motor control affecting precise movements like shooting or ball handling during critical game moments.
  • Muscle fatigue and cramping – Reduced muscle function causing slower reaction times, impaired power output and painful contractions limiting movement.
  • Dizziness or lightheadedness – Impaired balance and spatial awareness making direction changes difficult and increasing fall risk during play.
  • Increased heart rate – Cardiovascular strain reducing oxygen delivery to muscles, causing earlier fatigue and decreased movement efficiency.
  • Mental confusion – Reduced concentration affecting decision-making, tactical awareness and reaction times during complex game situations.
  • Excessive thirst – Distraction from performance focus and dry mouth affecting breathing patterns during high-intensity movement periods.
Show Worked Solution

Sample Answer - Any 2 of the following:

  • Decreased coordination - Loss of fine motor control affecting precise movements like shooting or ball handling during critical game moments.
  • Muscle fatigue and cramping - Reduced muscle function causing slower reaction times, impaired power output and painful contractions limiting movement.
  • Dizziness or lightheadedness - Impaired balance and spatial awareness making direction changes difficult and increasing fall risk during play.
  • Increased heart rate - Cardiovascular strain reducing oxygen delivery to muscles, causing earlier fatigue and decreased movement efficiency.
  • Mental confusion - Reduced concentration affecting decision-making, tactical awareness and reaction times during complex game situations.
  • Excessive thirst - Distraction from performance focus and dry mouth affecting breathing patterns during high-intensity movement periods.

HMS, BM EQ-Bank 899

Outline TWO ways that acute stress affects the digestive system.   (3 marks)

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Sample Answer – Any 2 of the following

Decreased saliva production

  • During acute stress, saliva production decreases due to the sympathetic nervous system activation.
  • Dry mouth often results with initial digestion of carbohydrates less efficient .

Blood diversion from digestive organs

  • Acute stress causes blood to be diverted away from the digestive organs to skeletal muscles, heart, and lungs.
  • This can produce temporarily reduced digestive processes and nutrient absorption.

Slowed/halted peristalsis

  • Acute stress can slow or halt peristalsis (the wave-like muscle contractions that move food through the digestive tract).
  • Therefore feelings of fullness or discomfort can occur.

Sphincter relaxation

  • Stress hormones can cause the sphincter between the oesophagus and stomach to relax inappropriately.
  • Thus a heightened potential for acid reflux or heartburn during stressful situations exists.

Stomach/intestinal contractions

  • The release of adrenaline during acute stress can cause contractions in the stomach and intestines.
  • Nausea, “butterflies in the stomach,” or even diarrhoea are possible consequences in some individuals.

Inflammatory response

  • Acute stress can trigger the release of inflammatory compounds in the digestive tract.
  • As a result gut sensitivity is increased and potentially exacerbates conditions like irritable bowel syndrome.
Show Worked Solution

Sample Answer – Any 2 of the following

Decreased saliva production

  • During acute stress, saliva production decreases due to the sympathetic nervous system activation.
  • Dry mouth often results with initial digestion of carbohydrates less efficient .

Blood diversion from digestive organs

  • Acute stress causes blood to be diverted away from the digestive organs to skeletal muscles, heart, and lungs.
  • This can produce temporarily reduced digestive processes and nutrient absorption.

Slowed/halted peristalsis

  • Acute stress can slow or halt peristalsis (the wave-like muscle contractions that move food through the digestive tract).
  • Therefore feelings of fullness or discomfort can occur.

Sphincter relaxation

  • Stress hormones can cause the sphincter between the oesophagus and stomach to relax inappropriately.
  • Thus a heightened potential for acid reflux or heartburn during stressful situations exists.

Stomach/intestinal contractions

  • The release of adrenaline during acute stress can cause contractions in the stomach and intestines.
  • Nausea, “butterflies in the stomach,” or even diarrhoea are possible consequences in some individuals.

Inflammatory response

  • Acute stress can trigger the release of inflammatory compounds in the digestive tract.
  • As a result gut sensitivity is increased and potentially exacerbates conditions like irritable bowel syndrome.

HMS, BM EQ-Bank 868

Outline the difference between pulmonary and systemic circulation.   (3 marks)

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Sample Answer

Pulmonary Circulation:

  • Moves blood between the heart and lungs for gas exchange.
  • Carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs via the pulmonary artery.
  • Returns oxygenated blood to the left atrium via pulmonary veins.

Systemic Circulation:

  • Moves blood between the heart and body tissues.
  • Carries oxygenated blood from the left ventricle to the body via the aorta.
  • Returns deoxygenated blood to the right atrium via the venae cavae.
Show Worked Solution

Sample Answer

Pulmonary Circulation:

  • Moves blood between the heart and lungs for gas exchange.
  • Carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs via the pulmonary artery.
  • Returns oxygenated blood to the left atrium via pulmonary veins.

Systemic Circulation:

  • Moves blood between the heart and body tissues.
  • Carries oxygenated blood from the left ventricle to the body via the aorta.
  • Returns deoxygenated blood to the right atrium via the venae cavae.

HMS, BM EQ-Bank 860

Outline the structure of alveoli and explain how this structure enables efficient gas exchange.   (3 marks)

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Sample Answer

  • Alveoli are tiny air sacs located at the end of bronchioles in the lungs.
  • They have extremely thin walls (one cell thick) that enable gases to diffuse easily.
  • They are surrounded by an extensive network of capillaries, which creates a large surface area for gas exchange.
  • The close proximity between alveoli and capillaries results in a short diffusion distance for gases, allowing rapid oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange.
Show Worked Solution

Sample Answer

  • Alveoli are tiny air sacs located at the end of bronchioles in the lungs.
  • They have extremely thin walls (one cell thick) that enable gases to diffuse easily.
  • They are surrounded by an extensive network of capillaries, which creates a large surface area for gas exchange.
  • The close proximity between alveoli and capillaries results in a short diffusion distance for gases, allowing rapid oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange.

HMS, BM EQ-Bank 765

Explain how causes of fatigue differ between the ATP-PCr system and the glycolytic system during high-intensity exercise.   (4 marks)

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Sample Answer

  • The ATP-PCr system experiences fatigue solely from phosphocreatine depletion after 10-15 seconds of maximal effort.
  • This occurs because stored PCr becomes exhausted without producing any fatiguing by-products.
  • Heat is the only by-product, which enables rapid recovery within 2 minutes.
  • Therefore, ATP-PCr fatigue is temporary and quickly reversible.
  • The glycolytic system fatigues due to lactic acid accumulation in muscle cells.
  • Lactic acid forms when glucose breaks down anaerobically, accumulating faster than removal rates.
  • As a result, the acid interferes with enzyme function and muscle contraction.
  • Consequently, glycolytic fatigue persists longer, requiring 30-60 minutes for complete recovery.
Show Worked Solution

Sample Answer 

  • The ATP-PCr system experiences fatigue solely from phosphocreatine depletion after 10-15 seconds of maximal effort.
  • This occurs because stored PCr becomes exhausted without producing any fatiguing by-products.
  • Heat is the only by-product, which enables rapid recovery within 2 minutes.
  • Therefore, ATP-PCr fatigue is temporary and quickly reversible.
  • The glycolytic system fatigues due to lactic acid accumulation in muscle cells.
  • Lactic acid forms when glucose breaks down anaerobically, accumulating faster than removal rates.
  • As a result, the acid interferes with enzyme function and muscle contraction.
  • Consequently, glycolytic fatigue persists longer, requiring 30-60 minutes for complete recovery.

HMS, BM EQ-Bank 761

Describe how fuel sources contribute to fatigue during the final stretch of a 400-metre race.  (3 marks)

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Sample Answer

  • The 400m relies heavily on the glycolytic system which uses glucose as fuel for the final stretch.
  • This system produces ATP quickly but creates lactic acid as a by-product.
  • Lactic acid builds up rapidly in muscles, making them increasingly acidic and reducing their ability to contract.
  • Additionally, the intense effort uses up muscle glucose stores quickly.
  • These combined effects cause severe fatigue, forcing runners to slow dramatically in the final metres.
Show Worked Solution

Sample Answer

  • The 400m relies heavily on the glycolytic system which uses glucose as fuel for the final stretch.
  • This system produces ATP quickly but creates lactic acid as a by-product.
  • Lactic acid builds up rapidly in muscles, making them increasingly acidic and reducing their ability to contract.
  • Additionally, the intense effort uses up muscle glucose stores quickly.
  • These combined effects cause severe fatigue, forcing runners to slow dramatically in the final metres.

HMS, BM EQ-Bank 757

Identify the fuel sources used by the three energy systems and explain why each energy system uses its particular fuel source(s).   (6 marks)

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Sample Answer

  • The ATP-PCr system uses phosphocreatine as fuel because PCr can rapidly donate a phosphate group to ADP to reform ATP without requiring oxygen.
  • The glycolytic (lactic acid) system uses carbohydrates in the form of glucose (from blood) and glycogen (stored in muscles) because these can be quickly broken down anaerobically to produce ATP.
  • The aerobic system can use carbohydrates, fats, and proteins as fuel sources because oxygen is available for complete breakdown of these nutrients through cellular respiration pathways.
  • PCr is used for the ATP-PCr system due to its high concentration in muscle cells (five times that of ATP) allowing for quick energy availability.
  • Carbohydrates are the only fuel source that can be metabolised without oxygen, making them essential for the glycolytic system during high-intensity activities.
  • The aerobic system’s ability to use multiple fuel sources, particularly fat during lower intensities, allows for sustained energy production during prolonged activities when oxygen supply meets demand.
Show Worked Solution

Sample Answer 

  • The ATP-PCr system uses phosphocreatine as fuel because PCr can rapidly donate a phosphate group to ADP to reform ATP without requiring oxygen.
  • The glycolytic (lactic acid) system uses carbohydrates in the form of glucose (from blood) and glycogen (stored in muscles) because these can be quickly broken down anaerobically to produce ATP.
  • The aerobic system can use carbohydrates, fats, and proteins as fuel sources because oxygen is available for complete breakdown of these nutrients through cellular respiration pathways.
  • PCr is used for the ATP-PCr system due to its high concentration in muscle cells (five times that of ATP) allowing for quick energy availability.
  • Carbohydrates are the only fuel source that can be metabolised without oxygen, making them essential for the glycolytic system during high-intensity activities.
  • The aerobic system’s ability to use multiple fuel sources, particularly fat during lower intensities, allows for sustained energy production during prolonged activities when oxygen supply meets demand.

HMS, BM EQ-Bank 753

Describe how outdoor boot camps create opportunities for social interaction that enhance a sense of belonging.   (3 marks)

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Sample Answer

  • Boot camps often incorporate partner exercises requiring communication and collaboration.
  • Outdoor settings provide natural conversation opportunities before and after workouts.
  • The shared experience of training in varied weather conditions creates bonding through collective challenges.
  • Many boot camps organise social events or group challenges beyond regular sessions to strengthen connection.
Show Worked Solution

Sample Answer 

  • Boot camps often incorporate partner exercises requiring communication and collaboration.
  • Outdoor settings provide natural conversation opportunities before and after workouts.
  • The shared experience of training in varied weather conditions creates bonding through collective challenges.
  • Many boot camps organise social events or group challenges beyond regular sessions to strengthen connection.

HMS, BM EQ-Bank 747

Describe how parkrun encourages social interaction among participants.   (3 marks)

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Sample Answer

  • Parkrun events occur at regular weekly times. Weekly consistency creates ongoing opportunities for participants to meet and form connections.
  • Post-run coffee meetups are formally organised at local cafés. Social interaction extends beyond the exercise setting into community spaces.
  • Volunteer systems require participants to occasionally help run events. Different interaction opportunities emerge beyond just running together.
  • Non-competitive atmosphere (despite timing) encourages conversations before, during, and after runs. Participants of all abilities feel comfortable interacting with each other.
Show Worked Solution

Sample Answer 

  • Parkrun events occur at regular weekly times. Weekly consistency creates ongoing opportunities for participants to meet and form connections.
  • Post-run coffee meetups are formally organised at local cafés. Social interaction extends beyond the exercise setting into community spaces.
  • Volunteer systems require participants to occasionally help run events. Different interaction opportunities emerge beyond just running together.
  • Non-competitive atmosphere (despite timing) encourages conversations before, during, and after runs. Participants of all abilities feel comfortable interacting with each other.

HMS, BM EQ-Bank 741 MC

Which contemporary exercise element is MOST effective in creating social interaction opportunities OUTSIDE the exercise environment?

  1. Synchronised warm-ups before each session
  2. Timed intervals during high-intensity workouts
  3. Coffee meet-ups organised after exercise sessions
  4. Individual fitness assessments conducted by trainers
Show Answers Only

\(C\)

Show Worked Solution
  • C is correct: Coffee meet-ups create social interaction outside exercise environment.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Warm-ups occur during the exercise session.
  • B is incorrect: Timed intervals are part of the exercise session.
  • D is incorrect: Individual assessments don’t promote social interaction.

HMS, BM EQ-Bank 714

Outline how elite athletes apply self-regulation to improve their performance.   (3 marks)

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Sample Answer

  • Elite athletes have better awareness of their strengths and weaknesses, which helps them direct training efforts effectively.
  • They can manipulate playing situations to capitalise on their strengths while avoiding weaknesses.
  • Elite athletes control their thoughts and feelings during competition, directing energy toward achieving goals rather than dwelling on obstacles.
  • They reflect objectively on performance to identify improvement areas without being clouded by negative emotions.
Show Worked Solution

Sample Answer 

  • Elite athletes have better awareness of their strengths and weaknesses, which helps them direct training efforts effectively.
  • They can manipulate playing situations to capitalise on their strengths while avoiding weaknesses.
  • Elite athletes control their thoughts and feelings during competition, directing energy toward achieving goals rather than dwelling on obstacles.
  • They reflect objectively on performance to identify improvement areas without being clouded by negative emotions.

HMS, BM EQ-Bank 710

Outline how self-regulation contributes to sports performance.   (3 marks)

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Sample Answer

  • Self-regulation involves consciously constraining unwanted thoughts or behaviors to focus on achieving goals.
  • Athletes who effectively self-regulate can maintain effort for longer periods in their sport.
  • Self-regulation enables athletes to control emotions in high-pressure situations, preventing poor decisions and emotional outbursts.
  • Without adequate self-regulation, performance deteriorates as athletes lose focus on their goals.
Show Worked Solution

Sample Answer 

  • Self-regulation involves consciously constraining unwanted thoughts or behaviors to focus on achieving goals.
  • Athletes who effectively self-regulate can maintain effort for longer periods in their sport.
  • Self-regulation enables athletes to control emotions in high-pressure situations, preventing poor decisions and emotional outbursts.
  • Without adequate self-regulation, performance deteriorates as athletes lose focus on their goals.

HMS, BM EQ-Bank 705 MC

During a football grand final, a player experiences frustration when the opposition scores. The player struggles to maintain focus and begins making poor decisions.

This scenario demonstrates:

  1. The importance of positive self-talk
  2. Ego depletion
  3. Goal-directed behavior
  4. Self-efficacy
Show Answers Only

\(B\)

Show Worked Solution
  • B is correct: Mental resources exhausted after repeated self-regulation efforts.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: The scenario doesn’t specifically mention this technique.
  • C is incorrect: Shows breakdown rather than demonstrating goal-directed behaviour.
  • D is incorrect: Self-efficacy refers to belief, not inability to regulate.

HMS, BM EQ-Bank 702

Describe how a coach can increase positive motivation in young athletes.   (3 marks)

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Sample Answer

  • Coaches should establish progressive, achievable challenges that allow athletes to experience regular success, building confidence through visible skill development rather than emphasising competitive outcomes.
  • Providing specific, genuine praise focused on effort and process rather than natural ability reinforces desired behaviors while promoting growth mindset and resilience.
  • Creating supportive training environments where mistakes are treated as learning opportunities rather than failures helps athletes maintain a positive approach to skill development and risk-taking.
Show Worked Solution

Sample Answer 

  • Coaches should establish progressive, achievable challenges that allow athletes to experience regular success, building confidence through visible skill development rather than emphasising competitive outcomes.
  • Providing specific, genuine praise focused on effort and process rather than natural ability reinforces desired behaviors while promoting growth mindset and resilience.
  • Creating supportive training environments where mistakes are treated as learning opportunities rather than failures helps athletes maintain a positive approach to skill development and risk-taking.

HMS, BM EQ-Bank 697

Describe two ways intrinsic motivation supports long-term participation in sport.   (3 marks)

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Sample Answer

  • Intrinsic motivation is self-sustaining as it generates satisfaction from the activity itself, enabling athletes to continue participation even without external recognition or rewards.
  • Athletes who are intrinsically motivated focus on personal improvement and competence development, which creates an ongoing cycle of challenge and achievement that sustains interest.
  • Because intrinsic motivation is tied to enjoyment of the process rather than outcomes, it creates resilience that helps athletes persevere through setbacks or plateaus in performance.
Show Worked Solution

Sample Answer 

  • Intrinsic motivation is self-sustaining as it generates satisfaction from the activity itself, enabling athletes to continue participation even without external recognition or rewards.
  • Athletes who are intrinsically motivated focus on personal improvement and competence development, which creates an ongoing cycle of challenge and achievement that sustains interest.
  • Because intrinsic motivation is tied to enjoyment of the process rather than outcomes, it creates resilience that helps athletes persevere through setbacks or plateaus in performance.

HMS, BM EQ-Bank 694 MC

Which of the following is the BEST example of intrinsic motivation in sport?

  1. An athlete practising daily to earn a university scholarship
  2. A runner participating in a marathon for the enjoyment of the challenge
  3. A swimmer training harder after being criticised by their coach
  4. A basketball player performing well to receive praise from spectators
Show Answers Only

\(B\)

Show Worked Solution
  • B is correct: The runner is motivated by the internal satisfaction and enjoyment of the challenge itself, representing intrinsic motivation.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Pursuing a scholarship is an external reward (extrinsic motivation).
  • C is incorrect: Responding to criticism represents negative extrinsic motivation.
  • D is incorrect: Performing for spectator praise is a form of positive extrinsic motivation.

HMS, BM EQ-Bank 691 MC

Which statement about motivation in sport is MOST accurate?

  1. Motivation levels remain consistent throughout an athlete's career
  2. Negative consequences are more effective for long-term development than positive reinforcement
  3. Motivation can be influenced to help athletes reach their potential
  4. External rewards provide more sustainable motivation than internal satisfaction
Show Answers Only

\(C\)

Show Worked Solution
  • C is correct: Motivation can be shaped to enhance performance.

Other Options:

  • A is incorrect: Motivation fluctuates based on success and challenges.
  • B is incorrect: Positive approaches generally produce better long-term results.
  • D is incorrect: Internal satisfaction provides more sustainable motivation.